The nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy for acute leukemia. The client reports chills and weakness.
Assessment findings include a temperature of 101 F (38.3 C), heart rate 142 beats per minute, blood pressure 80/40 mm Hg, respiratory rate 32 breaths per minute, and O2 saturation 94 Which interpretation by the nurse is most accurate?
The client is demonstrating neutropenic sepsis with septic shock.
The client is experiencing tumor lysis syndrome.
The client is showing expected chemotherapy-related fatigue.
The client is developing superior vena cava syndrome.
The Correct Answer is A
Identifying life-threatening complications in immunocompromised patients is critical. Knowledge of the systemic inflammatory response syndrome and hemodynamic instability in neutropenic patients must be applied to differentiate between oncological emergencies like sepsis, tumor lysis syndrome, and superior vena cava obstruction.
Choice A rationale
Sepsis in neutropenic patients often leads to septic shock, characterized by hypotension (80/40 mm Hg) and tachycardia (142/min). The high fever and rapid breathing indicate a systemic response to infection and inadequate tissue perfusion.
Choice B rationale
Tumor lysis syndrome results from rapid cell destruction, causing hyperkalemia, hyperuricemia, and renal failure. While it is an oncological emergency, it does not typically present with the acute hemodynamic collapse and profound hypotension seen in this scenario.
Choice C rationale
While chemotherapy induces fatigue, it does not cause severe hypotension, high fever, or extreme tachycardia. These findings represent a critical physiological crisis rather than the expected side effects of exhaustion or malaise during oncological treatment.
Choice D rationale
Superior vena cava syndrome involves obstruction of blood flow from the upper body, causing facial edema, neck vein distention, and dyspnea. It does not primarily present with acute fever, sepsis symptoms, or profound hypotension.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Postoperative care focuses on mitigating risks associated with anesthesia and immobility. This question addresses the prevention of atelectasis and pneumonia by applying knowledge of respiratory mechanics, alveolar expansion, and nursing interventions designed to optimize lung volumes and gas exchange.
Choice A rationale
Incentive spirometry promotes deep breathing and lung expansion, preventing alveolar collapse or atelectasis common after surgery. It encourages sustained maximal inspiration, which increases surfactant production and improves oxygenation, maintaining a normal oxygen saturation of 95 to 100 percent.
Choice B rationale
Range-of-motion exercises primarily prevent musculoskeletal stiffness and deep vein thrombosis by promoting venous return. While important for overall recovery, they do not directly expand lung tissue or prevent pulmonary secretions from accumulating in the bronchioles.
Choice C rationale
Expectorants assist in thinning mucus but do not address the primary postoperative risk of hypoventilation or lung collapse. Preventive care prioritizes mechanical expansion of the lungs over pharmacological management of secretions unless a cough is present.
Choice D rationale
Suction equipment is a reactive measure used when secretions already obstruct the airway. Preventive care focuses on proactive lung expansion techniques rather than the equipment needed for emergency or symptomatic management of existing pulmonary distress.
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E","G"]
Explanation
The scenario requires evaluating surgical and medical history to identify specific factors that increase the probability of clot formation. Knowledge of Virchow's triad, involving venous stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability, is applied to differentiate between general health issues and specific VTE risks.
Choice A rationale
A history of previous deep vein thrombosis is one of the strongest predictors for future occurrences. Past events indicate a predisposition to hypercoagulability or existing vascular damage, which significantly increases the risk during periods of surgical immobilization.
Choice B rationale
While hypertension is a significant cardiovascular risk factor for stroke or myocardial infarction, it is not traditionally categorized as a direct independent trigger for venous thromboembolism. It affects the high-pressure arterial system rather than the venous system.
Choice C rationale
Remote surgical history like a cholecystectomy does not present an active risk for a current procedure. Only the immediate perioperative period of the current surgery or a very recent surgery within thirty days contributes to VTE risk.
Choice D rationale
Major orthopedic surgeries, specifically total hip arthroplasties, carry an extremely high risk for VTE due to extensive local tissue trauma and prolonged venous stasis. These procedures require aggressive prophylaxis because they often cause direct venous endothelial injury.
Choice E rationale
A Body Mass Index of 30.1 indicates obesity, which increases intra-abdominal pressure and slows venous return from the lower extremities. This venous stasis, combined with chronic systemic inflammation associated with adipose tissue, raises the risk of clot formation.
Choice F rationale
High cholesterol, or hyperlipidemia, is a primary driver for atherosclerosis within the arterial system. While it impacts overall vascular health, it is not a primary or direct risk factor for developing venous thromboembolism in the perioperative setting.
Choice G rationale
Smoking causes significant endothelial dysfunction and increases blood viscosity, even if the client quit two years ago. The long-term damage to the vascular lining and chronic changes in coagulation factors contribute to an elevated risk profile.
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