The nurse correlates which rationale with the administration of aspirin to the client experiencing angina-like chest pain?
Analgesic properties without sedation.
Vasoconstriction and improved blood flow.
Platelet inhibition to reduce clot formation.
Cardiotonic properties and improved contraction.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Aspirin does have analgesic properties, which help relieve pain. However, this is not the primary reason for its administration in the context of angina-like chest pain. The analgesic effect of aspirin without sedation is more relevant in the management of general pain or headaches.
Choice B reason: Vasoconstriction and improved blood flow are not effects of aspirin. In fact, aspirin's mechanism of action involves preventing platelet aggregation, which can indirectly improve blood flow by reducing the risk of clot formation. Vasoconstriction is not an effect associated with aspirin.
Choice C reason: The primary rationale for administering aspirin to a client with angina-like chest pain is its antiplatelet effect. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of clot formation. This is crucial in preventing further blockage of coronary arteries, which can exacerbate angina or lead to myocardial infarction.
Choice D reason: Cardiotonic properties and improved contraction are not associated with aspirin. Cardiotonic drugs enhance the strength of the heart's contractions, which is not an action of aspirin. Aspirin's role in this context is to prevent platelet aggregation and reduce the risk of clot-related complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: An increase in serum hematocrit indicates that epoetin has been effective. Epoetin, also known as erythropoietin, is a medication used to stimulate the production of red blood cells. In patients with chronic kidney disease, the kidneys may not produce enough natural erythropoietin, leading to anemia. By administering epoetin, the goal is to increase red blood cell production, which is reflected in higher hematocrit levels (the proportion of red blood cells in the blood).
Choice B reason: An increase in serum calcium is not related to the effectiveness of epoetin. Serum calcium levels are regulated by different mechanisms, including parathyroid hormone and vitamin D, and are not directly influenced by epoetin administration.
Choice C reason: A decrease in serum creatinine levels would indicate improved kidney function, but this is not the expected outcome of epoetin therapy. Epoetin specifically targets red blood cell production and does not have a direct impact on kidney function or creatinine levels.
Choice D reason: A decrease in blood pressure is also not an expected indicator of epoetin effectiveness. While managing blood pressure is important in chronic kidney disease, epoetin's primary role is to address anemia by stimulating red blood cell production. Blood pressure regulation involves other medications and interventions.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: A heart rate of 56/min and a blood pressure of 110/70, while slightly lower than normal, may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. Bradycardia (a slow heart rate) and this blood pressure reading can be within acceptable limits for some individuals, especially if they are asymptomatic.
Choice B reason: Mitral valve regurgitation with a thready peripheral pulse indicates a decrease in cardiac output, which can be concerning. However, it may not require immediate intervention unless the client shows signs of severe decompensation or other critical symptoms. Continuous monitoring and evaluation are essential, but immediate action might not be necessary.
Choice C reason: Chest pain with inspiration in a client with pericarditis can be a symptom of the condition itself, which involves inflammation of the pericardium. While pain management and monitoring are important, this symptom alone may not necessitate immediate intervention unless it is severe or accompanied by other alarming signs.
Choice D reason: The development of slurred speech in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is a critical symptom that warrants immediate intervention. Slurred speech can be a sign of a stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA), both of which require urgent medical attention. Immediate action is needed to evaluate and manage the client's condition to prevent further complications.
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