A patient with a spinal cord lesion at T4 tells the nurse that he has a headache and feels flushed. The BP is significantly elevated to 190/100. The first action by the nurse is to:

Elevate the head of the bed immediately and notify the provider

Administer PRN tylenol for the patient's headache

Recheck all of the patient's vital signs

Elevate the patient's knees and lower the head of the bed

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason:

Elevating the head of the bed and notifying the provider is the correct initial action when a patient with a spinal cord lesion at T4 experiences a significantly elevated blood pressure (190/100), headache, and flushing. These symptoms suggest autonomic dysreflexia, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Elevating the head of the bed helps to lower blood pressure, and notifying the provider ensures that further medical treatment can be administered promptly.

Choice B reason:

Administering PRN Tylenol for the patient's headache is not the appropriate first action in this scenario. While Tylenol may help with the headache, it does not address the underlying cause of the elevated blood pressure and autonomic dysreflexia. Immediate intervention to lower blood pressure is critical to prevent complications.

Choice C reason:

Rechecking all of the patient's vital signs is important but not the priority action in this situation. The nurse should first take measures to lower the blood pressure and address the symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia by elevating the head of the bed and notifying the provider. Monitoring vital signs can be done concurrently, but it should not delay the immediate intervention required.

Choice D reason:

Elevating the patient's knees and lowering the head of the bed is contraindicated in this situation. Lowering the head of the bed can further increase intracranial pressure and exacerbate symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. The proper position to help reduce blood pressure is to elevate the head of the bed.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Hypoxia not responsive to oxygen therapy is a hallmark early sign of ARDS. ARDS is characterized by acute onset of hypoxemia that does not improve with supplemental oxygen. This refractory hypoxemia is due to severe inflammation and increased permeability of the alveolar-capillary barrier, leading to pulmonary edema and impaired gas exchange.

Choice B reason:

Elevated lactate levels can indicate tissue hypoxia and metabolic stress, which are concerning findings in critically ill patients. However, elevated lactate is not specific to ARDS and can be seen in various conditions, including sepsis and shock. It is not the primary early indicator of ARDS.

Choice C reason:

Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with ARDS. ARDS usually involves respiratory failure, which may lead to respiratory acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis can occur in other conditions, such as excessive loss of gastric acid or diuretic use, but it is not an early sign of ARDS.

Choice D reason:

Severe, unexplained electrolyte imbalance can occur in critically ill patients but is not specific to ARDS. Electrolyte imbalances can result from various factors, including fluid shifts, renal dysfunction, and medication effects. These imbalances do not serve as an early diagnostic indicator of ARDS.

A. Decorticate posturing B. Flexion withdrawal C. Localization of pain D. Decerebrate posturing

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Decorticate posturing involves abnormal flexion of the arms towards the chest and extension of the legs. This posture indicates damage to the corticospinal tract at the level of the diencephalon. The described response does not match decorticate posturing.

Choice B reason:

Flexion withdrawal is a response to painful stimuli where the patient pulls away or flexes the affected limb. This is a less severe response than posturing and does not match the description provided in the scenario.

Choice C reason:

Localization of pain refers to the patient's ability to purposefully move a hand to the site of a painful stimulus, indicating higher brain function. The described response of arm and leg extension with pronation does not fit this description.

Choice D reason:

Decerebrate posturing is characterized by extension of the arms and legs, pronation of the arms, and plantar flexion. This posture indicates severe brainstem damage and is consistent with the described response.

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A patient with a spinal cord lesion at T4 tells the nurse that he has a headache and feels flushed. The BP is significantly elevated to 190/100. The first action by the nurse is to:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse interprets which finding as an early sign of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in a client at risk?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse applies a painful stimulus to the nailbeds of an unconscious patient. The patient responds with extension of the arms and legs, pronation of the arms, and plantar flexion. The nurse documents this as:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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