The nurse anticipates that the client presenting with increased intracranial pressure would most likely exhibit which set of vital signs?
BP 190/84, HR 50, and an irregular respiratory pattern
BP 190/84, HR 150, and an irregular respiratory pattern
BP 80/50, HR 50, and Kussmaul respirations
BP 80/50, HR 150, and Cheyne-Stokes respirations
The Correct Answer is A
A. BP 190/84, HR 50, and an irregular respiratory pattern is characteristic of Cushing's triad, a classic sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Cushing's triad includes hypertension with a widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular or abnormal respirations. The elevated blood pressure occurs as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cerebral perfusion, while bradycardia and irregular respirations result from brainstem compression.
B. BP 190/84, HR 150, and an irregular respiratory pattern is incorrect because tachycardia (HR 150) is not part of Cushing's triad. Increased ICP typically causes bradycardia due to brainstem involvement.
C. BP 80/50, HR 50, and Kussmaul respirations: Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid respirations commonly seen in metabolic acidosis, not typically associated with increased intracranial pressure.
D. BP 80/50, HR 150, and Cheyne-Stokes respirations: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by alternating periods of deep breathing followed by apnea and are often seen in conditions affecting the brainstem, but they are not specific to increased intracranial pressure.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The client can follow simple motor commands: A GCS score of 5 for the best motor response indicates that the client can localize pain but cannot follow simple motor commands. A score of 6 or higher is required to demonstrate following commands.
B. The client is unable to make vocal sound: A GCS score of 5 for the best verbal response indicates incomprehensible sounds or no verbal response. It does not specifically indicate the client's ability to vocalize or make sounds.
C. The client opens his eyes when spoken to: A GCS score of 3 for eye opening indicates no eye opening even to painful stimuli. It does not suggest that the client opens his eyes when spoken to.
D. The client is unconscious: A GCS score of 3 for eye opening, 5 for best verbal response, and 5 for best motor response indicates severe neurological impairment, with the client being unresponsive to stimuli and unable to follow commands. Therefore, the appropriate conclusion is that the client is unconscious.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Check the client's phenytoin (Dilantin) level: Checking the phenytoin level would not be relevant in this situation as the client's presentation suggests a possible stroke, not related to phenytoin therapy.
B. Get an order to decrease the rate of IV fluids: While managing fluid balance is important, there is insufficient information to warrant decreasing IV fluids at this time. It's essential to assess the client's overall condition and consult with the healthcare provider before making changes to IV fluid administration.
C. Ask the woman to describe how she's feeling: Assessing the client's symptoms and response to treatment is crucial for monitoring her condition and guiding further interventions, especially in
the context of a possible stroke.
D. Offer the client clear liquids to prevent dehydration: While maintaining hydration is
important, offering clear liquids would not address the potential stroke or irregular respirations. Assessment and intervention related to the client's neurological status and respiratory function take precedence.
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