The following statement best describes which phase in the cycle of battering: "The woman senses that the man's tolerance for frustration is declining. He becomes angry with little provocation but may be quick to apologize. She may just try to stay out of his way." The nurse recognizes this statement to be which of the following phases?
Phase IV.
Phase I.
Phase III.
Phase I.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is Choice B.
Choice A rationale: Phase IV is not a recognized phase in the cycle of battering. Typically, the cycle of battering consists of three phases: tension-building, acute battering, and honeymoon phase. Each phase has distinct characteristics.
Choice B rationale: Phase I, the tension-building phase, is characterized by increased tension, irritability, and frustration in the abuser. The victim may sense the abuser's declining tolerance for frustration, leading them to try to avoid confrontation by staying out of the abuser's way.
Choice C rationale: Phase III is the honeymoon phase, where the abuser may apologize, show remorse, and be affectionate. The victim may feel hopeful for change. However, this does not match the described behavior of increasing frustration and anger with quick apologies.
Choice D rationale: This is a duplicate of Choice B. As previously stated, Phase I, the tension-building phase, involves the buildup of tension and irritability in the abuser, leading the victim to try to stay out of the abuser's way to avoid conflict.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Answer is d. Situational.
a. Maturational crisis: This type of crisis occurs in response to life transitions or developmental stages, such as marriage, parenthood, retirement, or aging. It involves challenges related to adjusting to new roles, responsibilities, or expectations. However, the client's denial of a new HIV diagnosis and refusal of treatment do not align with the characteristics of a maturational crisis, as it pertains to planned life events rather than unexpected health crises.
b. Adventitious crisis: Adventitious crises are caused by events that are unplanned, unexpected, and often traumatic, such as natural disasters, accidents, or crimes. These crises can affect individuals, families, or communities and may result in significant psychological distress and disruption. However, the client's denial of an HIV diagnosis does not fit the criteria for an adventitious crisis, as it is a personal health issue rather than an external event affecting a broader population.
c. Internal crisis: While internal struggles and conflicts can contribute to a person's overall crisis experience, "internal crisis" is not a recognized category within the context of nursing crises. Internal factors such as psychological distress, unresolved trauma, or maladaptive coping mechanisms may exacerbate crisis situations, but they are typically addressed within the framework of other crisis categories such as situational, maturational, or existential crises.
d. Situational crisis: Correct. A situational crisis arises from an external event or situation that the individual finds overwhelming, threatening, or challenging to cope with. In this scenario, the client's denial of their HIV diagnosis and refusal of treatment represent a situational crisis as it stems from the unexpected news of their health condition. The client's perception of the diagnosis as threatening or inconceivable leads to emotional distress and maladaptive coping mechanisms, which can hinder their ability to accept and manage their medical condition effectively.
In summary, the correct answer is d because the client's denial of their HIV diagnosis and refusal of treatment align with the characteristics of a situational crisis, which arises from an external event that the individual perceives as overwhelming or threatening. Understanding the nature of the crisis can guide the nurse in providing appropriate support, education, and intervention to help the client navigate through this challenging time and make informed decisions regarding their healthcare.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Pseudoparkinsonism.
Choice A rationale:
Tardive dyskinesia is a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements, often around the mouth, such as lip-smacking, tongue protrusion, and chewing movements. It does not typically present with impaired gait and tremors.
Choice B rationale:
Acute dystonia involves sudden, severe muscle contractions, often affecting the neck, face, and back. Symptoms include twisting movements and abnormal postures, but it does not usually cause impaired gait and tremors.
Choice C rationale:
Pseudoparkinsonism is an adverse effect of antipsychotic medications that mimics the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease, including bradykinesia (slowness of movement), rigidity, tremors, and postural instability. The impaired gait and uncontrollable tremors observed by the nurse are characteristic signs of pseudoparkinsonism.
Choice D rationale:
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. It presents with symptoms such as high fever, muscle rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction (e.g., unstable blood pressure, sweating). It does not typically present with impaired gait and tremors.
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