The following statement best describes which phase in the cycle of battering: "The woman senses that the man's tolerance for frustration is declining. He becomes angry with little provocation but may be quick to apologize. She may just try to stay out of his way." The nurse recognizes this statement to be which of the following phases?
Phase IV.
Phase I.
Phase III.
Phase I.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is Choice B.
Choice A rationale: Phase IV is not a recognized phase in the cycle of battering. Typically, the cycle of battering consists of three phases: tension-building, acute battering, and honeymoon phase. Each phase has distinct characteristics.
Choice B rationale: Phase I, the tension-building phase, is characterized by increased tension, irritability, and frustration in the abuser. The victim may sense the abuser's declining tolerance for frustration, leading them to try to avoid confrontation by staying out of the abuser's way.
Choice C rationale: Phase III is the honeymoon phase, where the abuser may apologize, show remorse, and be affectionate. The victim may feel hopeful for change. However, this does not match the described behavior of increasing frustration and anger with quick apologies.
Choice D rationale: This is a duplicate of Choice B. As previously stated, Phase I, the tension-building phase, involves the buildup of tension and irritability in the abuser, leading the victim to try to stay out of the abuser's way to avoid conflict.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Risperidone (Risperdal) is an atypical antipsychotic commonly used to manage symptoms of schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. It is not indicated for opioid withdrawal, making it an inappropriate choice.
Choice B rationale:
Lithium carbonate (Eskalith) is a mood stabilizer used primarily for bipolar disorder. It has no direct impact on opioid withdrawal symptoms, so it would not be the correct choice for managing opioid withdrawal.
Choice C rationale:
Disulfiram (Antabuse) is used to deter alcohol consumption by inducing unpleasant reactions when alcohol is consumed. It is not used to manage opioid withdrawal symptoms and is therefore not the correct choice.
Choice D rationale:
Methadone (Methadose) is a synthetic opioid agonist often used in medication-assisted treatment for opioid dependence and withdrawal. It helps alleviate withdrawal symptoms and cravings, promoting a smoother and safer withdrawal process.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice D rationale:
Setting limits on the client's behavior and maintaining consistency is essential when dealing with a client experiencing a manic episode. Manic episodes are characterized by impulsive and often disruptive behaviors. By setting clear limits, the nurse establishes boundaries that help manage the disruptive behavior and maintain a safe and therapeutic environment. Consistency in approach is vital to avoid confusion and to provide the client with a sense of stability during a time when their judgment and impulse control might be impaired.
Choice A rationale:
Warning the client that further disruptions will result in seclusion might escalate the situation and potentially worsen the client's agitation. It's crucial to use non-confrontational approaches when dealing with clients experiencing manic episodes to prevent increased agitation and aggression.
Choice B rationale:
Ignoring the client's behavior is not a suitable approach, as it could lead to a deterioration of the situation and potentially compromise the safety and well-being of both the client and others on the unit. It's important to address disruptive behavior promptly and appropriately.
Choice C rationale:
Asking the client to recommend consequences for her disruptive behavior might not be effective during a manic episode. Clients in a manic state might not have a realistic or rational perspective on their behavior, and involving them in determining consequences could lead to unreasonable outcomes.
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