The client presents with an exaggeration of the lumbar spine curve. How does the nurse interpret this finding?
Scoliosis.
Lordosis.
Kyphosis.
Dowager's hump.
Dowager's hump.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Scoliosis refers to a lateral curvature of the spine, not an exaggeration of the lumbar spine curve, which is characterized by lordosis.
Choice B rationale
Lordosis is an exaggerated inward curve of the lumbar spine, often referred to as swayback. This condition is identified by the nurse as the client presents with an exaggerated lumbar curve.
Choice C rationale
Kyphosis describes an excessive outward curvature of the thoracic spine, resulting in a hunched back, not the lumbar spine.
Choice D rationale
Dowager's hump is a term commonly associated with kyphosis, characterized by a pronounced curvature of the upper back, not the lumbar region.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Intravenous phenobarbital can be used to treat status epilepticus, but it is not the first-line drug due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines. Rapid intervention is critical in status epilepticus, and phenobarbital is generally reserved for refractory cases.
Choice B rationale
Oral phenytoin is used for long-term control of seizures but is not effective for immediate cessation of status epilepticus. It takes longer to reach therapeutic levels and is not suitable for acute management.
Choice C rationale
Intravenous diazepam is a benzodiazepine with a rapid onset of action, making it effective in stopping seizures immediately. It enhances GABA activity, which has an inhibitory effect on neuronal firing, providing quick control of status epilepticus. This rapid effect is crucial for minimizing neuronal damage and other complications.
Choice D rationale
Oral lorazepam is effective for long-term management of seizures but is not appropriate for immediate treatment of status epilepticus. The oral route delays absorption and onset of action, making it unsuitable for acute seizure control. .
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A CPP of 40 mm Hg is considered low and indicates inadequate cerebral perfusion pressure, which requires immediate medical intervention.
Choice B rationale
A low CPP indicates compromised cerebral blood flow, leading to potential brain ischemia and damage.
Choice C rationale
A reading of 40 mm Hg is not inaccurate if it reflects the actual CPP of the client.
Choice D rationale
A CPP of 40 mm Hg is not high; it is low and requires prompt attention. .
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