The charge nurse is teaching a group of telemetry nurses about cardioversion. Which statement by the telemetry nurse would indicate that they understand the instruction about the electrical discharge?

It occurs immediately when buttons depressed.

It requires a higher amount of joules than is used in defibrillation.

It discharges during ventricular depolarization of the heart.

It is programmed to occur in non-sync mode.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. It occurs immediately when buttons depressed: The device synchronizes with the R wave and does not deliver the shock immediately.

B. It requires a higher amount of joules than is used in defibrillation: Cardioversion typically requires fewer joules compared to defibrillation.

C. It discharges during ventricular depolarization of the heart: Synchronized cardioversion times the electrical shock with the R wave (ventricular depolarization) to avoid delivering energy during the T wave, which could induce ventricular fibrillation.

D. It is programmed to occur in non-sync mode: Cardioversion must be synchronized; non-sync mode is used in defibrillation.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Intracranial pressure (ICP) is now 15: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP). The intended effect of the medication is to lower ICP. A decrease in ICP to 15 mmHg is within the normal range and indicates the medication has worked effectively.

B. The patient voids 250 mL over 2 hours is incorrect. While mannitol promotes diuresis, the amount of urine output alone does not directly indicate a reduction in ICP. The goal is to lower ICP, which is best assessed by measuring the ICP itself.

C. The patient's pupils are dilated and sluggish is incorrect. Dilated and sluggish pupils can be a sign of increased ICP, not a response to effective treatment.

D. Seizure behavior is absent is incorrect. While mannitol can help reduce ICP and potentially prevent seizures, the absence of seizure behavior is not a direct indicator of the medication's effect on ICP.

A. Pelvic fracture B. Femoral neck fracture C. Tibia fracture D. Fibula fracture

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Pelvic fracture: Pelvic fractures may cause significant pain and instability but do not typically result in a shortened, adducted, and externally rotated leg.

B. Femoral neck fracture: These findings (shortened, adducted, externally rotated leg) are classic for a femoral neck fracture due to muscle contraction and displacement of the bone.

C. Tibia fracture: Tibia fractures typically present with swelling and deformity, not shortening or rotation of the leg.

D. Fibula fracture: A fibula fracture alone rarely causes leg shortening or rotation as it is a non-weight-bearing bone.

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The charge nurse is teaching a group of telemetry nurses about cardioversion. Which statement by the telemetry nurse would indicate that they understand the instruction about the electrical discharge?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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