A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who became unresponsive after stating she had a sudden, severe headache with vomiting and then seizure activity. The client's vital signs are as follows: blood pressure of 198/110 mm Hg pulse of 82 bpm, respirations of 24/min, and a temperature of 100.8 F (38.2° C). Which neurologic disorder would the nurse suspect?
Thrombotic stroke
Embolic stroke
Hemorrhagic stroke
Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
The Correct Answer is C
A. Thrombotic stroke. A thrombotic stroke develops more gradually and is not typically associated with such sudden and severe symptoms.
B. Embolic stroke. An embolic stroke is often associated with a known embolic source, such as a clot from the heart, and can present more suddenly, but without all the symptoms seen here.
C. Hemorrhagic stroke: Hemorrhagic strokes often present with a sudden, severe headache, vomiting, seizure activity, and high blood pressure. A fever may also develop due to increased intracranial pressure.
D. Transient ischemic attack (TIA). TIAs are brief and resolve within minutes to hours and do not typically cause seizures.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
A. Facilitates the insertion of a pacemaker: This is not the purpose of an electrophysiology study (EPS). A pacemaker may be considered based on the results, but EPS itself does not insert the device.
B. Assesses the function of the SA node: EPS is used to assess the electrical activity of the heart, including the function of the SA node.
C. Evaluates the effectiveness of prescribed antiarrhythmic medication: EPS can help evaluate how well antiarrhythmic medications are controlling arrhythmias.
D. Identifies the location of abnormal sites within cardiac muscle: EPS is often used to locate areas of the heart responsible for abnormal electrical conduction and arrhythmias.
E. Treats certain arrhythmias through the process of ablation: One of the therapeutic purposes of EPS is to perform ablation, which can treat certain arrhythmias by destroying abnormal tissue.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Decreased peripheral pulses. Decreased pulses may be related to poor perfusion but are not a hallmark sign of right-sided heart failure.
B. S3 heart murmur. An S3 heart murmur is associated with left-sided heart failure due to fluid overload in the lungs.
C. Distended neck veins: Right-sided heart failure leads to the backup of blood in the systemic circulation, which often causes jugular vein distention (JVD), peripheral edema, and hepatomegaly.
D. Orthopnea. Orthopnea is a symptom of left-sided heart failure, where fluid builds up in the lungs, making it difficult to breathe when lying flat.
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