The antitubercular drug isoniazid is prescribed for a client with active tuberculosis.
To evaluate the effectiveness of this medication, which outcome can the nurse expect this client to exhibit?
Decreased appetite and weight loss.
Decreased cough and sputum.
Vertigo and tinnitus.
A positive sputum smear and culture.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice B rationale:
Isoniazid's Mechanism of Action:
It targets and inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acids, which are essential components of the cell wall of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria that cause tuberculosis.
By disrupting cell wall formation, isoniazid prevents bacterial growth and multiplication, leading to the suppression and eventual eradication of the infection.
Clinical Manifestations of Active TB:
Persistent cough, often productive of sputum (phlegm), is a hallmark symptom of TB. The sputum may contain blood or have a rusty-colored appearance.
Other common symptoms include fever, night sweats, fatigue, weight loss, and chest pain. How Isoniazid Reduces Cough and Sputum:
As isoniazid effectively kills the TB bacteria, the inflammatory process within the lungs subsides.
This leads to a gradual decrease in the production of sputum, which is a direct result of the inflammatory response. Consequently, the frequency and severity of coughing episodes also diminish.
Monitoring Treatment Response:
Regular sputum smears and cultures are essential to assess the response to treatment.
A positive sputum smear indicates the presence of live TB bacteria, while a positive culture confirms their growth in the laboratory.
A gradual decrease in the number of bacteria seen on sputum smears, followed by negative cultures, signals a favorable response to treatment.
Timeframe for Improvement:
It's important to note that clinical improvement, including a reduction in cough and sputum, may not be immediately evident. It typically takes several weeks of consistent isoniazid therapy to achieve noticeable results.
Therefore, adherence to the prescribed treatment regimen is crucial for successful TB eradication. Addressing Other Choices:
Choice A: Decreased appetite and weight loss are often associated with active TB due to systemic inflammation and nutritional deficiencies. While isoniazid treatment may indirectly improve appetite and weight gain over time, these are not primary indicators of its effectiveness in suppressing the TB infection itself.
Choice C: Vertigo and tinnitus are potential side effects of isoniazid, but they do not reflect its efficacy in treating TB.
Choice D: A positive sputum smear and culture would indicate ongoing TB infection and a lack of response to treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The most likely diagnosis for this client isB. Pulmonary embolism and postpartum hemorrhage.
Here’s why:
- Postpartum Hemorrhage:
- The client has a large amount of lochia rubra, indicating significant blood loss.
- Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are low (7.5 g/dL and 22%, respectively), which is consistent with significant blood loss.
- Symptoms like feeling lightheaded, pale appearance, and cool, clammy skin further support this diagnosis.
- Pulmonary Embolism:
- The client is experiencing shortness of breath, using accessory muscles to breathe, and has an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air.
- Elevated D-dimer levels (1.5 µg/mL) suggest the presence of a clot.
- Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) results show a low PaO2 (60 mmHg) and a slightly acidic pH (7.32), which can be seen in pulmonary embolism.
- The client reports a feeling of tightness in her chest and has a rapid heart rate (120 beats per minute), which are also indicative of a pulmonary embolism.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Suppressor T-cells (also known as regulatory T-cells) play a role in regulating the immune response, but their proliferation is not the primary mechanism by which HIV suppresses the immune system. In fact, HIV can disrupt the function of suppressor T-cells, leading to an impaired ability to control immune responses.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. Cytotoxic T-cells (also known as CD8+ T-cells) are important for killing infected cells, but their deficiency is not the direct cause of immune suppression in HIV. However, HIV can indirectly lead to a deficiency of cytotoxic T-cells by disrupting their production and function.
Choice C rationale:
Incorrect. B-lymphocytes produce antibodies, and IgM is an early antibody produced in response to infection. However, an increase in B-lymphocytes and IgM is not characteristic of HIV infection. In fact, HIV can impair B-cell function, leading to decreased antibody production.
Choice D rationale:
Correct. HIV primarily targets and destroys helper T-cells (also known as CD4+ T-cells). These cells play a crucial role in coordinating the immune response by activating other immune cells, such as cytotoxic T-cells and B-cells. The depletion of helper T-cells leads to a progressive weakening of the immune system, rendering the body vulnerable to opportunistic infections and cancers.
Specific mechanisms of CD4+ T-cell destruction by HIV:
Direct infection and lysis: HIV can directly infect CD4+ T-cells and replicate within them, eventually leading to the death of the infected cells.
CD4+ T-cell apoptosis: HIV can induce programmed cell death (apoptosis) in CD4+ T-cells through various mechanisms, including the activation of pro-apoptotic pathways and the disruption of anti-apoptotic signals.
Immune dysregulation: HIV infection can also dysregulate the immune system, leading to chronic inflammation and immune activation. This can further contribute to CD4+ T-cell depletion and dysfunction.
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