A male client with a brain tumor is scheduled for a biopsy in the morning. During the admission procedure, the client has a tonic-clonic seizure that lasts 50 seconds. Following the seizure, the client is lethargic and confused and his wife tells the nurse that her husband has never had a seizure before and has always been alert and communicative. Which action should the nurse take?
Notify the emergency response team of the client's seizure.
Keep orienting the client to time and place until he is less confused.
Explain the postictal state that usually follows seizures.
Ask the wife to wait outside the room until the nurse can talk with her.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Notifying the emergency response team of the client's seizure is not a necessary action for the nurse, as the seizure has already stopped and there is no immediate threat to the client's life. This is a distractor choice.
Choice B reason: Keeping orienting the client to time and place until he is less confused is an appropriate action for the nurse, as this can help restore the client's cognitive function and reduce his anxiety after a seizure. Therefore, this is the correct choice.
Choice C reason: Explaining the postictal state that usually follows seizures is not a priority action for the nurse, as this can be done later when the client is more alert and receptive. This is another distractor choice.
Choice D reason: Asking the wife to wait outside the room until the nurse can talk with her is not a considerate action for the nurse, as this can increase her stress and worry about her husband's condition. This is a contraindicated choice.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because a distended bladder can cause uterine displacement and interfere with uterine contraction, leading to increased bleeding and risk of infection. The nurse should check for bladder fullness and encourage the client to void or catheterize if necessary.
Choice B reason: Reviewing the hemoglobin to determine hemorrhage is an important action, but not the first one. The nurse should first identify and correct the cause of bleeding, such as bladder distension or uterine atony, before checking for blood loss and anemia.
Choice C reason: Massaging the uterus to decrease atony is not indicated in this case, because the uterus is already firm. Massaging a firm uterus can cause overstimulation and pain.
Choice D reason: Increasing intravenous infusion is not the first action, because it may worsen bleeding by increasing blood pressure and diluting clotting factors. The nurse should first assess and manage bleeding before administering fluids or blood products as prescribed.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A 16-year-old client diagnosed with major depression who refuses to participate in group does not require the nurse's immediate attention. Depression is a mood disorder that causes persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and loss of interest. Refusing to participate in group may indicate low motivation, social withdrawal, or poor self-esteem, which are common symptoms of depression. The nurse should respect the client's preference and offer alternative activities or individual therapy.
Choice B reason: A 17-year-old client diagnosed with bipolar disorder who is pacing around the lobby does not require the nurse's immediate attention. Bipolar disorder is a mood disorder that causes alternating episodes of mania and depression. Pacing around the lobby may indicate restlessness, agitation, or increased energy, which are common signs of mania. The nurse should monitor the client's behavior and mood and ensure safety and appropriate medication administration.
Choice C reason: This is the correct answer because an 18-year-old client with antisocial behavior who is being yelled at by other clients requires the nurse's immediate attention. Antisocial behavior is a pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others. Being yelled at by other clients may indicate conflict, aggression, or provocation, which are common features of antisocial behavior. The nurse should intervene to de-escalate the situation and prevent violence or harm.
Choice D reason: A 14-year-old client with anorexia nervosa who is refusing to eat the evening snack does not require the nurse's immediate attention. Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder that causes extreme restriction of food intake and fear of weight gain. Refusing to eat the evening snack may indicate distorted body image, dietary rules, or anxiety, which are common factors of anorexia nervosa. The nurse should encourage the client to eat and provide support and education.
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