In preparation for a patient having a Schilling test, the nurse should explain that the test:

will confirm a diagnosis of G6PD anemia.

requires the patient to be NPO for 12 hours prior to the test.

is a 24-hour urine specimen collection test.

entails administration of methylcellulose prior to the test.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: The Schilling test is not used to diagnose G6PD anemia, which is a genetic disorder that causes red blood cells to break down when exposed to certain substances. The Schilling test is used to measure how well the body absorbs vitamin B12 from the intestine. ¹²

Choice B reason: The Schilling test does not require the patient to be NPO (nothing by mouth) for 12 hours prior to the test. The patient can drink water, but should avoid food for 8 hours before the test. ²

Choice C reason: The Schilling test is a 24-hour urine specimen collection test. The patient is given a dose of radioactive vitamin B12 by mouth and another dose of nonradioactive vitamin B12 by injection. The urine is collected for 24 hours to measure how much of the radioactive vitamin B12 is excreted. This indicates how well the body absorbs vitamin B12 from the intestine. ¹²

Choice D reason: The Schilling test does not entail administration of methylcellulose prior to the test. Methylcellulose is a type of laxative that can interfere with the absorption of vitamin B12. The patient should avoid taking any laxatives, antacids, or antibiotics before the test. ²³

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Decreasing the incidence of tachycardia is not the main therapeutic effect of atenolol for coronary artery disease. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that lowers the heart rate, but this is not the primary goal of therapy for coronary artery disease. Coronary artery disease is caused by atherosclerosis, which is the buildup of plaque in the arteries that supply the heart. This reduces the blood flow and oxygen to the heart muscle and causes angina, or chest pain.

Choice B reason: Dilating the coronary arteries is not the therapeutic effect of atenolol for coronary artery disease. Atenolol does not directly affect the diameter of the coronary arteries. It works by blocking the beta receptors in the heart and reducing the response to adrenaline and other stress hormones. This lowers the blood pressure and the oxygen demand of the heart.

Choice C reason: This is the correct answer. Decreasing cardiac workload is the therapeutic effect of atenolol for coronary artery disease. Atenolol reduces the contractility and the excitability of the heart muscle, which lowers the force and the frequency of the heartbeats. This decreases the amount of work that the heart has to do and the amount of oxygen that it needs. This helps prevent or relieve anginal attacks and improve the quality of life of the client.

Choice D reason: Increasing the strength of myocardial contraction is not the therapeutic effect of atenolol for coronary artery disease. Atenolol does not increase the strength of myocardial contraction, but rather decreases it. Increasing the strength of myocardial contraction would increase the oxygen demand of the heart and worsen the angina. Atenolol aims to reduce the oxygen demand of the heart and improve the blood supply to the heart.

A. Prepare for endotracheal intubation and ventilatory support. B. Provide continuous sedation for pain relief. C. Initiate cardiac monitoring and assess for reflex bradycardia. D. Maintain IV fluid infusion and assess adequacy of hydration.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

hoice A reason: Preparing for endotracheal intubation and ventilatory support is not the action that the nurse should take for a client with thyroid storm. This intervention is indicated for clients with respiratory failure or impending airway obstruction, which are not the case for this client.

Choice B reason: Providing continuous sedation for pain relief is not the action that the nurse should take for a client with thyroid storm. This intervention may worsen the client's condition by suppressing the respiratory drive and lowering the blood pressure. The nurse should administer antithyroid medications, beta blockers, and corticosteroids as prescribed to reduce the thyroid hormone levels and the associated symptoms.

Choice C reason: Initiating cardiac monitoring and assessing for reflex bradycardia is not the action that the nurse should take for a client with thyroid storm. This intervention is indicated for clients with hyperkalemia or digoxin toxicity, which are not the case for this client. The nurse should monitor the client's heart rate and rhythm, but not expect a reflex bradycardia, which is a paradoxical slowing of the heart rate in response to a rapid rise in blood pressure.

Choice D reason: Maintaining IV fluid infusion and assessing adequacy of hydration is the action that the nurse should take for a client with thyroid storm. This intervention is indicated for clients with thyroid storm, as they are at risk of dehydration and electrolyte imbalance due to increased metabolic rate, fever, sweating, vomiting, and diarrhea. The nurse should administer isotonic fluids, such as normal saline, and monitor the client's fluid intake and output, urine specific gravity, and serum electrolytes.

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In preparation for a patient having a Schilling test, the nurse should explain that the test:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse administers atenolol 50 mg PO bid to a client who has coronary artery disease. The nurse understands that the therapeutic effect of this medication for this client is to:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client is experiencing a thyroid storm precipitated by a right lower lobe pneumonia. The vital signs are: HR-140/min; RR-28, B/P-196/54; T-101.4°F, Pulse Oximetry-96%. What action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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