Following a gunshot wound, an adult client has a hemoglobin level of 4 g/dL (40 g/L). The nurse prepares to administer a unit of blood for an emergency transfusion. The client has AB negative blood type and the blood bank sends a unit of Type A Rh negative, reporting that there is no Type AB negative blood currently available. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Administer normal saline solution until Type AB negative is available.

Obtain additional consent for administration of Type A negative blood.

Recheck the client's hemoglobin, blood type, and Rh factor.

Transfuse Type A negative blood until Type AB negative is available.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Administering normal saline solution alone will not address the severe anemia caused by the low hemoglobin level.

Choice B reason: Obtaining additional consent is necessary, but it is not the immediate action required in this emergency situation.

Choice C reason: Rechecking the client's hemoglobin, blood type, and Rh factor is important, but the immediate priority is to address the severe anemia.

Choice D reason: Transfusing Type A negative blood is appropriate because it is compatible with AB negative blood and is necessary to treat the client's critical anemia.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Pinworm infections can be asymptomatic, so treatment is recommended even in the absence of symptoms to prevent spread.

Choice B reason: A second dose of mebendazole is often recommended two weeks after the initial dose to ensure all pinworms are eliminated, including newly hatched ones.

Choice C reason: Mebendazole is not recommended for children under two years of age without medical advice.

Choice D reason: Mebendazole is typically administered orally, not as a rectal suppository.

A. Systemic inflammatory response. B. Infectious process in the synovial fluid. C. Loss of bone mineral density. D. Destruction of joint cartilage.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Systemic inflammatory response is more characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis rather than osteoarthritis.

Choice B reason: Infectious process in the synovial fluid suggests septic arthritis, not osteoarthritis.

Choice C reason: Loss of bone mineral density is related to osteoporosis, not specifically to osteoarthritis.

Choice D reason: Osteoarthritis is characterized by the destruction of joint cartilage, leading to pain and stiffness in the affected joints.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The school nurse is preparing a teaching pamphlet in response to requests from parents regarding an outbreak of pinworms at the local preschool. Which information about the most commonly prescribed medication, mebendazole, should be included?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

An older client with osteoarthritis reports increasing pain and stiffness in the right knee and asks how to reduce these symptoms. In responding to the client, the nurse recognizes which pathology as the cause of the symptoms?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is teaching a female client about preventive measures for urinary tract infections (UTI). Which information should the nurse include?

A client with a history of inflammatory bowel disease develops severe ulcerative colitis and is admitted to the intensive care unit after surgery for a fistula repair. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

The nurse has received funding to design a health promotion project for African-American women who are at risk for developing breast cancer. Which resource is most important in designing this program?

The healthcare provider (HCP) prescribes 0.9% normal saline 500 mL IV bolus to be infused over 30 minutes. How many mL/hour should the nurse set the infusion pump? (Enter numerical value only.)

The nurse knows that a medication has the side effect of orthostatic hypotension. Which assessment should the nurse make before administering the medication?

A client's catheter bag was left on the client's bed for a prolonged period of time, and the client develops a urinary tract infection (UTI). In evaluating the cause of the infection, which should the nurse identify as the infection reservoir?

A client is being treated for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). On examination, the client has a weight gain of 4.4 lbs (2 kg) in 24 hours and an elevated blood pressure. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

A client with heart failure (HF) develops cardiac tamponade. The client has muffled, distant heart sounds, and is anxious and restless. After initiating oxygen therapy and IV hydration, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?