An adolescent client is taking a leukotriene blocker. Which of these statements by the client requires the most immediate intervention?

I will take this medication to prevent asthma attacks.

I am still using my rescue inhaler twice a month.

This medication is messing with my sleep.

I want to die and know how to do it.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

a) Taking the medication to prevent asthma attacks is an appropriate use and does not require immediate intervention.

b) Using the rescue inhaler twice a month may indicate the need for further evaluation but does not pose an immediate threat.

c) Sleep disturbances are a known side effect of leukotriene blockers and may need attention, but it is not an urgent concern.

d) Expressing suicidal ideation and having a plan for self-harm is a critical situation that requires immediate intervention to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

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Correct Answer is ["A","B"]

Explanation

A) Hold metformin 24 hours to 48 hours before the CT. This is correct because it reduces the chance of metformin accumulating in the blood and causing lactic acidosis when combined with the contrast dye.

B) Hold metformin 48 hours after the CT. This is also correct because it allows time for the contrast dye to be eliminated from the body before resuming metformin.

C) Double the metformin dose after the CT. This is incorrect and dangerous because it can cause hypoglycemia, low blood sugar, which can lead to confusion, seizures, coma, or death. D) Take metformin as scheduled the day of the CT. This is incorrect and risky because it can result in high levels of metformin in the blood when mixed with the contrast dye, increasing the likelihood of lactic acidosis.

E) Resume metformin at half dose after the CT. This is incorrect and unnecessary because there is no evidence that reducing the dose of metformin after a CT scan with contrast dye has any benefit or reduces any harm.

Correct Answer is ["0.3"]

Explanation

Convert the ordered dose from micrograms (mcg) to milligrams (mg):
- 300 mcg = 0.3 mg (since 1 mg = 1000 mcg)
Use the formula:
Dose to administer = (Desired Dose ÷ On-Hand Dose) × Quantity Available
- Desired Dose (D) = 0.3 mg
- On-Hand Dose (H) = 1 mg
- Quantity Available (Q) = 1 mL
Calculate:
0.3 mg ÷ 1 mg × 1 mL = 0.3 mL

The nurse should administer 0.3 mL of the medication.

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An adolescent client is taking a leukotriene blocker. Which of these statements by the client requires the most immediate intervention?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The diabetic client is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) scan with intravenous contrast. What education will the nurse provide? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["A","B"]

Explanation

The nurse receives an order to give atropine 300mcg SQ now. The medication is available in 1mg/mL vial. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Record the answer to the tenth, or one decimal place. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Correct Answer is ["0.3"]

Explanation

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