An 86-year-old patient asks the nurse what lifestyle changes will reduce the chance of a urinary tract infection. Which response is accurate?
Decreasing fluid intake will decrease the amount of urine with bacteria produced.
Making sure to cleanse the perineal area from back to front after voiding will reduce the chance of infection.
Utilizing cotton rather than synthetic undergarments.
Urinary tract infections are unavoidable in the elderly because of a weakened immune system.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Decreasing fluid intake can actually increase the risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs) because it leads to concentrated urine and less frequent urination, which reduces the ability to flush bacteria from the urinary tract.
B. Cleansing the perineal area from back to front increases the risk of transferring bacteria from the rectum to the urethra, which is a common cause of UTIs. The correct technique is to cleanse from front to back.
C. Utilizing cotton rather than synthetic undergarments is beneficial because cotton is breathable and helps keep the genital area dry, reducing the risk of bacterial growth and infection.
D. Urinary tract infections are unavoidable in the elderly is not true. While the elderly may be at increased risk due to factors such as weakened immune systems, UTIs can often be prevented with proper hygiene, hydration, and lifestyle changes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. 50% Dextrose in Water (D50W) IV push is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dL, indicating severe hypoglycemia. The rapid administration of D50W will quickly raise the blood glucose level and help restore consciousness.
B. Insulin Regular IV push would lower the blood glucose level, which is not appropriate in this situation where the client is hypoglycemic.
C. 0.9% sodium chloride infusion is a general fluid replacement solution, but it will not address the client's low blood glucose level.
D. 5% Dextrose continuous IV infusion is typically used for maintenance, but it would not act as quickly as D50W to correct severe hypoglycemia in an unconscious patient.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Antihypertensive medication is not a priority intervention for a client with a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL, which indicates hyperglycemia, likely due to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) or hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). The focus should be on correcting the hyperglycemia and preventing complications like dehydration or electrolyte imbalances.
B. Fluid replacement is essential to treat dehydration caused by hyperglycemia, as high blood glucose levels cause osmotic diuresis.
C. Potassium laboratory monitoring is crucial because insulin treatment can shift potassium into cells, potentially causing hypokalemia, so monitoring is necessary during treatment.
D. Insulin IV infusion is necessary to lower the blood glucose level in clients with severe hyperglycemia, such as in DKA or HHS.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
