An 18-year-old male has suffered a C5 spinal cord injury which has resulted in tetraplegia. His mother is crying in the waiting room 2 days after the injury has occurred. When the nurses sit down to talk to her, she asks whether her son will ever play football again. Which of the following responses would be best?
Reflect on how she's feeling, and encourage her to express other fears that she has about his injury.
Explain that you aren't sure, but you will ask the physician to talk to her right away.
Advise her that it isn't in his best interest for her to be so upset, and explain the importance of moral support
Reassure her that given time and motivation he will return to normal function.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Reflect on how she's feeling, and encourage her to express other fears that she has about his injury – Acknowledging emotions and encouraging open expression helps the mother process her grief and begin adjusting to the reality of the injury.
B. Explain that you aren't sure, but you will ask the physician to talk to her right away – Deferring to the physician misses an opportunity for emotional support.
C. Advise her that it isn’t in his best interest for her to be so upset, and explain the importance of moral support – This dismisses her emotions rather than addressing them.
D. Reassure her that given time and motivation he will return to normal function – Providing false reassurance is inappropriate, as a C5 spinal cord injury results in permanent loss of function.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Dextrose 5% in 0.45% sodium chloride IV. – Incorrect. Dextrose is given later, after blood glucose drops below 250 mg/dL to prevent hypoglycemia.
B. Oral hypoglycemic medications. – Incorrect. DKA requires IV insulin, not oral medications.
C. Glucocorticoid medications. – Incorrect. Glucocorticoids can worsen hyperglycemia by increasing blood sugar.
D. 0.9% sodium chloride IV. – Correct Answer. Fluid resuscitation with normal saline is the first priority to correct hypovolemia caused by osmotic diuresis in DKA.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Clarify the prescription because the insulin should not be administered at this time. – Incorrect. Aspart insulin is rapid-acting and should be given with meals to prevent post-meal hyperglycemia.
B. Hold breakfast for one hour after the insulin administration. – Incorrect. Rapid-acting insulin peaks quickly (within 30-90 minutes), so delaying food increases the risk of hypoglycemia.
C. Administer insulin when breakfast arrives. – Correct Answer. Aspart insulin should be given right before or with food to match glucose absorption and prevent hypoglycemia.
D. Check the blood glucose immediately after breakfast. – Incorrect. Blood glucose should be checked before insulin administration to ensure appropriate dosing.
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