All of the following describes obsessive-compulsive personality disorder except
Micromanages others
Perfectionist
Workaholic
Wants to be alone
The Correct Answer is D
A. Micromanages others. Individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) exhibit excessive control and perfectionism, often micromanaging tasks and people to ensure everything is done "correctly." They struggle with delegating responsibilities because they believe others will not meet their high standards.
B. Perfectionist. Rigid perfectionism is a core feature of OCPD. Individuals set unrealistically high expectations for themselves and others, leading to chronic dissatisfaction, procrastination, and inefficiency because they fear making mistakes.
C. Workaholic. Those with OCPD are often preoccupied with work and productivity, sometimes neglecting personal relationships and leisure activities. They may prioritize tasks over social interactions, believing that relaxation is a sign of laziness.
D. Wants to be alone. Unlike schizoid personality disorder, individuals with OCPD do not prefer isolation. They often engage with others in structured environments but struggle in relationships due to their rigid expectations, stubbornness, and excessive control over details rather than a genuine desire to be alone.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Aripiprazole (Abilify) is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic with a lower risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) due to its partial dopamine agonist mechanism. It has a lower incidence of tardive dyskinesia and dystonia compared to typical antipsychotics.
B. Clozapine (Clozaril) has the lowest risk of EPS among antipsychotics because it weakly blocks D2 receptors and primarily targets serotonin (5-HT2A) receptors. However, it carries a high risk of agranulocytosis, sedation, and metabolic syndrome.
C. Lurasidone (Latuda) is a second-generation antipsychotic with a moderate risk of EPS, particularly akathisia (restlessness). However, it has a lower risk than first-generation (typical) antipsychotics like haloperidol.
D. Haloperidol (Haldol) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic with a high risk of EPS due to its strong dopamine (D2) receptor blockade. It is associated with dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia, making it the antipsychotic with the highest EPS risk in this list.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Psychotherapy. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is the first-line treatment for somatic symptom disorder (SSD). It helps patients recognize and modify maladaptive thoughts about their physical symptoms, reducing distress and improving coping mechanisms.
B. Antipsychotics. Antipsychotic medications are not typically recommended for SSD unless there is a comorbid psychotic disorder or severe delusional thinking. SSD is primarily driven by excessive health-related anxiety and preoccupation with physical symptoms, not psychosis.
C. Anti-anxiety medications. Short-term use of anxiolytics (e.g., benzodiazepines) may help with acute anxiety symptoms, but they are not the preferred treatment due to the risk of dependence. SSRIs and psychotherapy are more effective long-term for managing anxiety in SSD.
D. Antidepressants. SSRIs and SNRIs are commonly used to treat SSD, especially when there is underlying depression or anxiety. These medications help reduce excessive preoccupation with physical symptoms and improve overall emotional well-being.
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