After 15 minutes of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and multiple defibrillations, a client has return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) with a heart rate of 130 beats/minute and ST elevation in leads I,II, III, aVF, aVL, V5, V6. Which serum laboratory values are most important for the nurse to monitor?

Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB).

Serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase (SGPT).

Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH).

Cardiac troponin.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB). CK-MB is a cardiac enzyme that rises 3-6 hours after myocardial injury and was previously used to diagnose myocardial infarction (MI). However, it is less specific than troponin and can be elevated in skeletal muscle damage, making troponin the preferred biomarker for cardiac injury.
B. Serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase (SGPT). SGPT (also known as alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) is a liver enzyme and is not a primary marker for cardiac injury. While cardiac arrest and hypoxia can lead to liver damage, monitoring cardiac-specific markers is the priority in this scenario.
C. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). LDH is a nonspecific marker of tissue damage that can be elevated in cardiac, hepatic, renal, or other organ injuries. It is not cardiac-specific and is no longer used as a primary diagnostic tool for MI.
D. Cardiac troponin. Troponin (T and I) is the most specific and sensitive biomarker for myocardial injury. The presence of ST elevation in multiple leads suggests acute myocardial infarction (MI) as the cause of cardiac arrest. Troponin levels begin to rise within 2-3 hours, peak at 12-24 hours, and remain elevated for 7-10 days, making them the most important laboratory value to monitor for ongoing cardiac damage.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Normal sinus rhythm (NSR) at 84 beats/minute. The goal of cardioversion for atrial fibrillation (AFib) is to restore a normal sinus rhythm (NSR). NSR indicates that the atria and ventricles are depolarizing in a coordinated manner, reducing the risk of thromboembolism, stroke, and hemodynamic instability. A heart rate of 84 beats/minute is within the normal range, confirming the success of the procedure.
B. Regular rhythm with consistent pacemaker capture. Cardioversion is used to restore normal rhythm in AFib, not to manage pacemaker function. A pacemaker is not part of standard AFib cardioversion unless the client has underlying conduction issues requiring pacing.
C. Return of elevated ST segment to the baseline. ST elevation suggests acute myocardial infarction (MI), which is unrelated to atrial fibrillation or cardioversion. Cardioversion does not treat ST elevation or myocardial ischemia, making this an incorrect indicator of success.
D. Increased frequency of QRS complexes. An increase in QRS frequency suggests tachycardia, which would indicate treatment failure rather than success. The goal of cardioversion is to restore a normal, controlled heart rate and rhythm, not to increase the number of ventricular contractions.

A. Measure the client's abdominal girth. B. Monitor the client's recent hemoglobin levels. C. Prepare for nasogastric tube (NGT) insertion. D. Notify the healthcare provider (HCP) of the client's status.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Measure the client's abdominal girth. While tracking abdominal distension is useful, it does not address the underlying cause of the client's deterioration. Measuring girth should not delay immediate intervention for a potentially life-threatening condition.
B. Monitor the client's recent hemoglobin levels. A drop in hemoglobin would indicate internal bleeding, but waiting for lab results could delay necessary treatment. The client is already showing signs of early shock, requiring urgent medical intervention rather than just monitoring.
C. Prepare for nasogastric tube (NGT) insertion. An NGT may be needed for bowel obstruction or paralytic ileus, but the client's worsening condition suggests a more urgent issue, such as intra-abdominal hemorrhage. Addressing the potential bleeding takes priority over decompression.
D. Notify the healthcare provider (HCP) of the client's status. The client's tachycardia, tachypnea, cool pale skin, and worsening abdominal distension suggest early shock, likely due to postoperative internal bleeding or abdominal compartment syndrome. Immediate notification of the HCP ensures rapid assessment, diagnostic testing, and potential emergency intervention to prevent further deterioration.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client has been treated for uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with cardioversion. Following the cardioversion, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the desired outcome was achieved?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client, who is 4 hours postoperative laparotomy, has rapidly increasing abdominal distention with elevated pulse and respiratory rates. The client's skin is cool and pale, and there is no change in the blood pressure. Which intervention should the nurse implement immediately?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

After intubating a client, correct placement of the endotracheal tube (ETT) is confirmed with a chest x-ray. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure that the ETT placement is maintained?

The nurse assesses a client postoperatively who has an arterial line in the right radial artery. Assessment findings include pallor, paresthesia, and slow capillary refill in the client's right-hand fingers. Which action should the nurse take?

A client with a gunshot wound is brought to the emergency department (ED) with a bullet entry at the spinal level of C8 and T1.The client is able to move the upper arms. To further assess the client's spinal nerve function, which action should the nurse implement?

Exhibits Based on the client's diagnosis, which results does the nurse expect in the blood gas? Select all that apply

A client is brought to the emergency department (ED) following a motor vehicle collision with blunt trauma to the chest. Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider (HCP)?