A woman complains of severe abdominal and pelvic pain around the time of menstruation that has gotten worse over the last 5 years. She also complains of pain during intercourse and has tried unsuccessfully to get pregnant for the past 18 months. These symptoms are most likely related to:

primary dysmenorrhea.

endometriosis.

secondary dysmenorrhea.

PMS.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because primary dysmenorrhea is menstrual pain that is not associated with any underlying condition. It usually begins with the onset of menstruation and lasts for a few days. It does not cause pain during intercourse or infertility.

Choice B reason: This is correct because endometriosis is a condition where the endometrial tissue that normally lines the uterus grows outside the uterus, such as on the ovaries, fallopian tubes, or pelvic organs. It causes chronic inflammation, scarring, and adhesions that can result in severe pain during menstruation and intercourse, as well as infertility.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because secondary dysmenorrhea is menstrual pain that is caused by an underlying condition, such as fibroids, pelvic inflammatory disease, or adenomyosis. It usually develops later in life and lasts longer than primary dysmenorrhea. It may or may not cause pain during intercourse or infertility, depending on the condition.

Choice D reason: This is incorrect because PMS stands for premenstrual syndrome, which is a group of physical and emotional symptoms that occur before menstruation. It may include mood swings, irritability, bloating, headaches, or breast tenderness. It does not cause severe pain during menstruation or intercourse, or infertility.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is: B. 3-1-1-0-3.

Choice A reason:

This option suggests the woman has been pregnant four times, which is incorrect. She has had three pregnancies: one set of twins (counted as one pregnancy) and two singletons.

Choice B reason:

This is the correct option. The woman has had three pregnancies (Gravida = 3), one full-term delivery (Term = 1), one preterm delivery (the twins, Preterm = 1), no abortions (Abortions = 0), and three living children (Living = 3).

Choice C reason:

This option incorrectly suggests two preterm deliveries and one abortion, neither of which is indicated in the woman's history.

Choice D reason:

This option incorrectly suggests two preterm deliveries (the twins are counted as one preterm delivery) and does not accurately reflect the woman's history.

GTPAL stands for Gravida (total number of pregnancies), Term births (deliveries after 37 weeks), Preterm births (deliveries between 20-36 weeks), Abortions (losses before 20 weeks), and Living children. Normal ranges: Term (≥37 weeks), Preterm (20-36 weeks)

A. She has used contraceptives for an extended time. B. Her ovaries may be affected by the aging process. C. Prepregnancy medical attention is lacking. D. Personal risk behaviors influence fertility.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is not the main reason, as the use of contraceptives for an extended time does not necessarily affect the fertility of a woman. Most contraceptives are reversible and do not cause permanent damage to the reproductive system. However, some contraceptives may take longer to wear off than others, and some may have side effects that can interfere with ovulation or implantation.

Choice B reason: This is the main reason, as the aging process can affect the ovaries and the quality and quantity of the eggs. As a woman ages, her ovarian reserve (the number of eggs in the ovaries) declines, and the eggs become more prone to chromosomal abnormalities. This can reduce the chances of conception and increase the risk of miscarriage or birth defects.

Choice C reason: This is not the main reason, as prepregnancy medical attention is not a prerequisite for achieving pregnancy. However, prepregnancy medical attention can be beneficial for a woman who is older than 35 years, as it can help identify and manage any existing or potential health problems that may affect the pregnancy, such as diabetes, hypertension, or thyroid disorders.

Choice D reason: This is not the main reason, as personal risk behaviors are not specific to a woman who is older than 35 years. Personal risk behaviors are factors that can negatively affect the fertility of any woman, regardless of age. Some examples of personal risk behaviors are smoking, drinking, using drugs, having multiple sexual partners, or having sexually transmitted infections.

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A woman complains of severe abdominal and pelvic pain around the time of menstruation that has gotten worse over the last 5 years. She also complains of pain during intercourse and has tried unsuccessfully to get pregnant for the past 18 months. These symptoms are most likely related to:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A pregnant woman comes to the prenatal clinic for an initial visit. In reviewing her childbearing history, the client indicated that she has delivered premature twins, one full-term baby, and has had no abortions. Which GTPAL should the nurse document in this client's record?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

What is the main reason why a woman who is older than 35 years may have difficulty achieving pregnancy?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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