A Type 1 diabetic client’s blood glucose level is 50 mg/dL at 16:30. The client is alert; however, dinner will not be served until 17:15. What should be the nurse’s initial action?

Have the client drink 4 oz. of orange juice

Give the client 3 tbsp.

of sugar dissolved in 4 oz. of grape juice to drink

Monitor the client closely until dinner arrives

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Step 1 is to understand that a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dL is considered hypoglycemic. Immediate treatment is necessary to raise the blood glucose level.

Step 2 is to follow the 15-15 rule for treating hypoglycemia, which recommends consuming 15 grams of carbohydrates and then checking blood glucose levels after 15 minutes. Four ounces of orange juice contains about 15 grams of carbohydrates and can quickly raise blood glucose levels.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A serum fasting glucose of 101 mg/dL is slightly above the normal range (70-100 mg/dL), indicating a possible prediabetes condition. However, it is not a contraindication for trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.

Choice B rationale

A platelet count of 160,000 uL is within the normal range (150,000-450,000 uL). Therefore, it is not a contraindication for trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.

Choice C rationale

A hemoglobin level of 13.6 g/dL is within the normal range for both men (13.5-17.5 g/dL) and women (12.0-15.5 g/dL). Thus, it is not a contraindication for trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.

Choice D rationale

A serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dL is above the normal range (0.6-1.2 mg/dL for men, 0.5- 1.1 mg/dL for women), indicating impaired kidney function. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is contraindicated in patients with severe renal insufficiency.

A. Administer morphine 2-4 mg IV prn for pain. B. Apply a figure of 8 pressure dressing starting day two post-operatively. C. Administer antibiotics as prescribed. D. Apply ice to the stump for 60-90 minutes.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is Choice A. After a below-the-knee amputation (BKA), pain management is crucial. Administering morphine 2-4 mg IV prn for pain is an appropriate physician’s order to implement. Pain can be severe after amputation, and effective pain management can improve patient comfort, reduce anxiety, and aid in recovery. Applying a figure of 8 pressure dressing starting day two post-operatively (Choice B) is not typically done after a BKA7. The operative dressing and splint should be maintained, and the wound should be kept clean, dry, and intact. Administering antibiotics as prescribed (Choice C) is important, but it is not the first action to take. Pain management is the priority immediately after surgery. Applying ice to the stump for 60-90 minutes (Choice D) is not typically done after a BKA7. The operative dressing and splint should be maintained, and the wound should be kept clean, dry, and intact.

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A Type 1 diabetic client’s blood glucose level is 50 mg/dL at 16:30. The client is alert; however, dinner will not be served until 17:15. What should be the nurse’s initial action?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A newly admitted client has been prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. The nurse understands that this medication is contraindicated based on which lab result?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Choice B rationale

Choice C rationale

Choice D rationale

A client with diabetes has returned from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) after a below-the-knee amputation (BKA) of the left leg. Which physician’s order should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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