A transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) has been infusing for 5 minutes when the patient becomes flushes and tachypneic and says, "I'm having chills. Please get me a blanket." Which action should the nurse take first?
Stop the transfusion
Administer oxygen
Obtain a blanket from the warmer
Check the patient's oral temperature
The Correct Answer is A
A. This is the first and most critical action to take. The patient's symptoms suggest a possible transfusion reaction, which can be life-threatening. Stopping the transfusion immediately prevents further exposure to potentially harmful blood components.
B. Administering oxygen may be necessary if the patient exhibits signs of respiratory distress or hypoxia. However, this action should come after ensuring that the transfusion is stopped and the patient is stabilized, as continuing the transfusion could exacerbate the reaction.
C. While providing warmth can help alleviate chills, it is not the priority action. The patient's safety is more important, and symptoms of a transfusion reaction must be addressed first.
D. Checking the temperature can provide useful information about the patient's condition, especially if a fever is present, but it is not an immediate priority. The focus should be on stopping the transfusion and managing the acute symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Morphine is a strong opioid analgesic that is effective for managing severe pain, especially in acute situations like a vaso-occlusive crisis. Administering it intravenously allows for rapid onset of pain relief, which is critical given the severity of the patient’s symptoms. Continuous dosing (ATC—around the clock) ensures that pain is managed effectively.
B. Fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain management and take time to reach effective levels in the bloodstream (up to 12 hours or longer). In the case of acute severe pain from a vaso- occlusive crisis, this option would not provide immediate relief.
C. While ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can help relieve mild to moderate pain, it is not adequate for severe pain management. Additionally, in the setting of sickle cell disease, patients may be at risk for renal issues, making high doses of NSAIDs potentially harmful.
D. Hydromorphone is also a strong opioid analgesic; however, administering it orally may not be effective for severe pain management in an acute situation. IV administration of opioids is preferred for immediate and potent pain relief during a vaso-occlusive crisis.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. This is not typical for Raynaud's phenomenon. Instead, Raynaud's is characterized by episodes of reduced blood flow to the extremities, often triggered by cold or stress, leading to sensations of coldness or numbness rather than warmth.
B. This finding aligns with Raynaud's phenomenon. During an episode, the blood vessels constrict in response to cold or stress, leading to pallor (whiteness) in the affected areas, such as the toes and fingers. This is a classic symptom of the condition.
C. While feet can become reddened due to increased blood flow after rewarming or after exposure to warmth, this is not a characteristic feature of Raynaud's phenomenon. In Raynaud's, the affected areas typically exhibit color changes from white (pallor) to blue (cyanosis) and then red (hyperemia) as blood flow returns, but redness upon ambulation is not specifically indicative of the phenomenon.
D. Swelling of the joints can occur in SLE due to arthritis or inflammation but is not a direct symptom of Raynaud's phenomenon. Raynaud's primarily affects blood flow and does not inherently cause joint swelling; however, a client with SLE may experience joint symptoms due to other underlying inflammatory processes.
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