A patient has been receiving warfarin sodium 2.5 mg PO daily for four days and the International Normalized Ratio (INR) is 1.9. What should be the nurse’s next step?
Place the patient back on the heparin infusion and redraw laboratory values.
Ask the healthcare provider if the patient’s medication can be changed to rivaroxaban.
Notify the healthcare provider and ask if the dose of warfarin can be increased.
Prepare to administer a dose of Vitamin K subcutaneously.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Placing the patient back on the heparin infusion and redrawing laboratory values would not be the appropriate next step. The INR of 1.9 is below the therapeutic range of 2.0 - 3.0 for most patients on warfarin. Therefore, the warfarin therapy is not yet fully effective, and there is no need to revert to heparin.
Choice B rationale
Asking the healthcare provider if the patient’s medication can be changed to rivaroxaban would not be the appropriate next step. Rivaroxaban is a different type of anticoagulant and would not necessarily be more effective in this situation.
Choice C rationale
Notifying the healthcare provider and asking if the dose of warfarin can be increased would be the appropriate next step. The INR of 1.9 is below the therapeutic range of 2.0 - 3.0 for most patients on warfarin. Therefore, an increase in the warfarin dose may be necessary to achieve therapeutic anticoagulation.
Choice D rationale
Preparing to administer a dose of Vitamin K subcutaneously would not be the appropriate next step. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin and would be counterproductive in this situation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice A. After a below-the-knee amputation (BKA), pain management is crucial. Administering morphine 2-4 mg IV prn for pain is an appropriate physician’s order to implement. Pain can be severe after amputation, and effective pain management can improve patient comfort, reduce anxiety, and aid in recovery. Applying a figure of 8 pressure dressing starting day two post-operatively (Choice B) is not typically done after a BKA7. The operative dressing and splint should be maintained, and the wound should be kept clean, dry, and intact. Administering antibiotics as prescribed (Choice C) is important, but it is not the first action to take. Pain management is the priority immediately after surgery. Applying ice to the stump for 60-90 minutes (Choice D) is not typically done after a BKA7. The operative dressing and splint should be maintained, and the wound should be kept clean, dry, and intact.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice D rationale
Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Syndrome (HHS) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs when blood sugar levels are extremely high. The primary treatment for HHS is intravenous fluids and insulin. Specifically, 0.9% saline solution IV is often used initially to restore volume and correct severe dehydration.
Choice A rationale
Administration of Glucagon is not the primary treatment for HHS. Glucagon is a hormone that raises blood glucose levels and would not be beneficial in a situation where blood glucose is already extremely high.
Choice B rationale
Dextrose 50% is a concentrated glucose solution and would not be appropriate in the treatment of HHS, where blood glucose levels are already dangerously high.
Choice C rationale
While IV fluids are a crucial part of the treatment for HHS, 0.45% Normal Saline (also known as half-normal saline) is a hypotonic solution and is not typically the first choice for fluid resuscitation in HHS. The preferred initial fluid is often 0.9% saline (normal saline), which is isotonic.
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