A nurse should include which statement when instructing a client about Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TMS).
TMS requires anesthesia prior to administration.
TMS requires a muscle relaxing medication prior to administration.
TMS requires the patient to lay flat in bed during administration.
TMS requires daily treatments for 4 to 6 weeks.
The Correct Answer is D
TMS requires daily treatments for 4 to 6 weeks. This is because TMS is a noninvasive procedure that uses magnetic fields to stimulate nerve cells in the brain to improve symptoms of depression. TMS is typically used when other depression treatments haven’t been effective. The treatment can last 30 to 60 minutes and is done 5 days a week for about 4 to 6 weeks.
Choice A is wrong because TMS does not require anesthesia prior to administration. The procedure is done without using surgery or cutting the skin and the patient is awake throughout the treatment.
Choice B is wrong because TMS does not require a muscle-relaxing medication prior to administration. The procedure does not cause muscle contractions or spasms and the patient can resume normal activities after the treatment.
Choice C is wrong because TMS does not require the patient to lay flat in bed during administration. The procedure is done in a comfortable chair and the patient can drive themselves home after the treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A 40-year-old client who has a blood pressure of 138/98 mm Hg should be referred for immediate treatment. This is because this client has grade 1 hypertension according to the International Society of Hypertension (ISH) guidelines, which define hypertension as a systolic blood pressure (SBP) of 140 mm Hg or higher and/or a diastolic blood pressure (DBP) of 90 mm Hg or higher in the office or clinic. This client also has a high risk of cardiovascular complications due to their age and elevated DBP.
Choice A is wrong because a 20-year-old client who has a blood pressure of 125/60 mm Hg does not have hypertension. This client has normal blood pressure according to the ISH guidelines, which define normal blood pressure as an SBP of less than 130 mm Hg and a DBP of less than 85 mm Hg in the office or clinic. This client also has a low risk of cardiovascular complications due to their age and low DBP.
Choice C is wrong because a 55-year-old client who has a blood pressure of 142/68 mm Hg does not need immediate treatment. This client has grade 1 hypertension according to the ISH guidelines, but their DBP is normal. The ISH guidelines recommend lifestyle interventions for three to six months before medication in patients with grade 1 hypertension and no comorbidities.
This client may have other risk factors that need to be assessed, such as obesity, diabetes, or smoking, but they do not require urgent referral.
Choice D is wrong because a 70-year-old client who has a blood pressure of 150/78 mm Hg does not need immediate treatment. This client has grade 1 hypertension according to the ISH guidelines, but their DBP is normal. The ISH guidelines recommend a target blood pressure of less than 140/90 mm Hg within three months for patients older than 65 years, and after three months reduce the target to less than 130/80 mm Hg.
This client may have other risk factors that need to be assessed, such as chronic kidney disease, heart failure, or atrial fibrillation, but they do not require urgent referral.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
temperature 101.8° F(38.8° C), BP 100/60 mm Hg, pulse 98/min, RR 28/min. This set of vital signs indicates that the client may have an infection or sepsis, which are potential complications of an open cholecystectomy. The client has a fever, tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension, which are signs of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS).
Choice A is wrong because it shows mild hypothermia, hypotension, and tachycardia, which could be due to dehydration or blood loss, but not necessarily infection.
Choice B is wrong because it shows a slight fever, normal blood pressure, and bradycardia, which could be due to pain or medication, but not infection.
Choice C is wrong because it shows a low-grade fever, normal blood pressure and pulse, and mild tachypnea, which could be due to inflammation or dehydration, but not infection.
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