A nurse massages the uterus of a postpartum woman after making a hypothesis of uterine atony.
Which of the following outcomes would indicate that the client's condition had improved?

Decreased pain level.

Stable blood pressure.

Fundus firm at or below the umbilicus.

Reduced lochial flow.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

Decreased pain level can be an effect of addressing the cause of pain, but it doesn't indicate improved uterine tone or resolution of atony.

Choice B rationale

Stable blood pressure is important, but it is not the direct outcome of improved uterine tone or the resolution of uterine atony.

Choice C rationale

A firm fundus at or below the umbilicus indicates successful contraction of the uterus, resolving uterine atony and reducing bleeding.

Choice D rationale

Reduced lochial flow can indicate decreased bleeding, but it does not directly indicate improved uterine tone or resolution of uterine atony.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Precipitous labor and birth are not directly associated with postpartum endometritis. The primary risk factors are related to infections during labor.

Choice B rationale

Postpartum endometritis is typically treated with a combination of antibiotics for 7-10 days, not a single dose of ampicillin or cephalosporin. A single dose would be insufficient for treating the infection.

Choice C rationale

Postpartum endometritis is more common following cesarean birth due to increased risk of infection despite the use of sterile techniques during surgery.

Choice D rationale

Postpartum endometritis is associated with internal monitoring, amnioinfusion, prolonged labor, and prolonged rupture of membranes. These factors increase the risk of infection, which can lead to endometritis.

A. Magnesium sulfate. B. Morphine sulfate. C. Terbutaline. D. Betamethasone.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Magnesium sulfate is primarily used for neuroprotection in preterm infants and to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia, not as a first-line tocolytic for preterm labor.

Choice B rationale

Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic used for pain management, not for inhibiting preterm labor contractions.

Choice C rationale

Terbutaline is a beta-agonist used as a tocolytic to relax uterine muscles and delay preterm labor. It helps decrease the intensity and frequency of contractions, making it suitable for managing preterm labor.

Choice D rationale

Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to accelerate fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not for direct contraction inhibition.

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A nurse massages the uterus of a postpartum woman after making a hypothesis of uterine atony.Which of the following outcomes would indicate that the client's condition had improved?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Postpartum endometritis is:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client at 28 weeks' gestation with intact membranes is admitted with the following findings: contractions every 5 minutes lasting 60 seconds, 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced.Which of the following medications will the obstetrician likely order?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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A nurse massages the uterus of a postpartum woman after making a hypothesis of uterine atony.Which of the following outcomes would indicate that the client's condition had improved?

A nurse massages the uterus of a postpartum woman after making a hypothesis of uterine atony.
Which of the following outcomes would indicate that the client's condition had improved?