A nurse manager is confronted by a staff nurse who states that an assignment is unfair. Which of the following responses should the nurse manager make?
"What part of this assignment makes you upset?"
"Let's discuss how this affects your performance improvement plan."
"Why are you talking to me instead of the charge nurse?"
"You are not the only one with a heavy assignment today."
The Correct Answer is A
A. "What part of this assignment makes you upset?": This response encourages open communication, allowing the staff nurse to express specific concerns. It demonstrates active listening, validation of feelings, and promotes problem-solving in a professional and supportive manner.
B. "Let's discuss how this affects your performance improvement plan.": This response shifts the focus to evaluation or discipline rather than addressing the immediate concern. It may create defensiveness and does not validate the nurse’s feelings or allow for discussion of the assignment issue.
C. "Why are you talking to me instead of the charge nurse?": This response is dismissive and may discourage the staff nurse from voicing concerns in the future. It does not address the fairness of the assignment or explore potential solutions.
D. "You are not the only one with a heavy assignment today.": Comparing workloads minimizes the nurse’s concerns and can be perceived as unsupportive. It does not facilitate problem-solving or acknowledge the staff nurse’s feelings about the assignment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
A. Prime the infusion tubing with 0.45% sodium chloride: Blood products should never be infused with hypotonic solutions like 0.45% sodium chloride, as this can cause hemolysis. Only 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) is safe for priming blood tubing.
B. Infuse the blood over 4 hr: Transfusion for older adults should generally be completed within 2–4 hours per unit to prevent fluid overload while allowing safe administration. Monitoring for signs of transfusion reactions or circulatory overload is critical.
C. Verify with another nurse that the unit of blood is compatible with the client's blood type: Independent verification by two qualified nurses ensures correct blood type and crossmatch, reducing the risk of hemolytic transfusion reactions.
D. Don sterile gloves to prepare the blood administration setup: Sterile gloves are not required for routine blood administration; clean gloves are sufficient to maintain standard precautions.
E. Assess the client's lung sounds prior to the infusion: Baseline lung assessment helps identify preexisting conditions such as fluid overload or pulmonary congestion, which is important for older adults at risk for transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO).
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Protruding hemorrhoids: Hemorrhoids are common in late pregnancy due to increased venous pressure and straining, and while uncomfortable, they are not an urgent concern requiring immediate provider notification.
B. 3+ deep-tendon reflexes: Hyperactive reflexes (3+) can indicate potential preeclampsia, which is a serious condition characterized by hypertension and risk of seizures. This finding requires prompt reporting and further evaluation to prevent complications for both the mother and fetus.
C. Supine hypotension: Supine hypotensive syndrome can occur when a pregnant client lies on her back, causing compression of the inferior vena cava. It is typically relieved by repositioning to the left lateral side and is not immediately dangerous if addressed promptly.
D. Urinary frequency: Increased urinary frequency is common in late pregnancy due to fetal pressure on the bladder. While it may cause discomfort, it is an expected finding and does not require urgent reporting to the provider.
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