A nurse manager is confronted by a staff nurse who states that an assignment is unfair. Which of the following responses should the nurse manager make?
"What part of this assignment makes you upset?"
"Let's discuss how this affects your performance improvement plan."
"Why are you talking to me instead of the charge nurse?"
"You are not the only one with a heavy assignment today."
The Correct Answer is A
A. "What part of this assignment makes you upset?": This response encourages open communication, allowing the staff nurse to express specific concerns. It demonstrates active listening, validation of feelings, and promotes problem-solving in a professional and supportive manner.
B. "Let's discuss how this affects your performance improvement plan.": This response shifts the focus to evaluation or discipline rather than addressing the immediate concern. It may create defensiveness and does not validate the nurse’s feelings or allow for discussion of the assignment issue.
C. "Why are you talking to me instead of the charge nurse?": This response is dismissive and may discourage the staff nurse from voicing concerns in the future. It does not address the fairness of the assignment or explore potential solutions.
D. "You are not the only one with a heavy assignment today.": Comparing workloads minimizes the nurse’s concerns and can be perceived as unsupportive. It does not facilitate problem-solving or acknowledge the staff nurse’s feelings about the assignment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"B"}}
Explanation
Rationale:
• Deep tendon patellar reflex: The client’s patellar reflex decreased from 4+ on day 1 to 2+ on day 2, indicating reduced hyperreflexia. This suggests a positive response to antihypertensive and preeclampsia management, lowering the risk for complications such as eclampsia or seizures.
• Heart rate: The client’s heart rate increased slightly from 84/min on day 1 to 90/min on day 2, which falls within a normal physiologic range and does not indicate significant improvement or deterioration. This shows that cardiovascular status has remained relatively stable.
• Blood pressure: Blood pressure decreased from severely elevated readings (162/112 mm Hg and 166/110 mm Hg) to 152/90 mm Hg, reflecting a partial response to antihypertensive therapy. Although still above normal, the downward trend indicates some improvement in maternal hemodynamic status.
• Edema: The client continues to have +3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities, which has not improved since the previous day. Persistent edema suggests that fluid balance and vascular permeability issues related to preeclampsia remain a concern and require ongoing monitoring.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Remove the surgical dressing and obtain a culture: Removing the dressing immediately is unnecessary for routine serosanguineous drainage, which is a normal finding in the early postoperative period. Cultures are only indicated if there are signs of infection such as purulent drainage, redness, or odor.
B. Irrigate the incision with saline: Irrigation is not required for normal serosanguineous drainage and may disrupt the healing process. It is reserved for wounds with debris, infection, or specific provider orders.
C. Clean the wound with hydrogen peroxide: Hydrogen peroxide can damage healthy tissue and delay healing. It is not indicated for routine postoperative care and should be avoided for normal drainage.
D. Mark the outline of the drainage: Marking the outline of the drainage allows the nurse to monitor for changes in amount and size over time. Tracking progression helps identify potential complications such as excessive bleeding or infection and supports timely interventions.
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