A nurse is reviewing the prescriptions for a client who is pregnant and is taking digoxin.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take to best evaluate the client's medication adherence?
Determine the client's apical pulse rate.
Ask the client if they are taking the medication as prescribed.
Assess the client's kidney function.
Check the client's serum medication level.
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. Determining the client's apical pulse rate is important for monitoring the effects of digoxin therapy but does not directly assess medication adherence.
B. Asking the client if they are taking the medication as prescribed is a direct way to evaluate medication adherence. Open communication with the client can provide valuable insight into their medication-taking behavior.
C. Assessing the client's kidney function is important for monitoring the effects of digoxin therapy but does not directly assess medication adherence.
D. Checking the client's serum medication level can provide information about medication concentration but may not necessarily indicate adherence, as the level could be within the therapeutic range even if the client is not taking the medication as prescribed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. This question addresses pelvic pressure, which may not directly relate to the effectiveness of the hands-and-knees position for occipitoposterior fetal positioning.
B. The spacing of contractions is not typically affected by maternal positioning and therefore is not the most appropriate question to evaluate the effectiveness of this intervention.
C. Asking about improvement in back labor is pertinent because the hands-and-knees position can help alleviate back pain associated with occipitoposterior fetal positioning.
D. Suprapubic pain is not typically associated with occipitoposterior fetal positioning, so this question may not provide useful information regarding the effectiveness of the intervention.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Gestational diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication for a contraction stress test. In fact, clients with gestational diabetes may require additional fetal monitoring due to the increased risk of fetal complications.
B. A previous classical incision, also known as a vertical uterine incision, increases the risk of uterine rupture during labor, making a contraction stress test contraindicated.
C. A previous stillbirth is not a contraindication for a contraction stress test. In fact, it may prompt additional fetal monitoring to assess for potential complications in subsequent pregnancies.
D. A nonreactive nonstress test may indicate the need for further evaluation with a contraction stress test; it is not a contraindication in itself.
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