A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has osteomyelitis in the left leg. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as requiring a referral?
The client has a WBC count of 20,000/mm3.
The client has a prescription for long-term IV antibiotic therapy.
The client has a prescription for furosemide.
The client has type 2 diabetes mellitus and a HbA1c of 6%.
The Correct Answer is B
A WBC count of 20,000/mm3 indicates infection and inflammation, which is expected in osteomyelitis. Long-term IV antibiotic therapy is a common treatment for osteomyelitis and may require a referral to avoid peripherl thrombophlebitis. Furosemide is a diuretic that may be prescribed for clients who have fluid retention or hypertension, which are not related to osteomyelitis. A HbA1c of 6% indicates good glycemic control for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus, which can help prevent complications and infections.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A flat lesion with irregular borders is one of the signs of melanoma, a type of skin cancer that arises from melanocytes, the cells that produce pigment. Other signs of melanoma include asymmetry, color variation, diameter greater than 6 mm, and evolution or change over time. The other options are more characteristic of other types of skin cancer or benign lesions.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A low potassium level (hypokalemia) can increase the risk for digoxin toxicity because it enhances the binding of digoxin to cardiac cells and increases its effects on cardiac contractility and electrical conduction. The nurse should monitor the client's potassium level and administer potassium supplements as prescribed if needed. The other electrolytes are not directly related to digoxin toxicity.
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