A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has osteomyelitis in the left leg. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as requiring a referral?
The client has a WBC count of 20,000/mm3.
The client has a prescription for long-term IV antibiotic therapy.
The client has a prescription for furosemide.
The client has type 2 diabetes mellitus and a HbA1c of 6%.
The Correct Answer is B
A WBC count of 20,000/mm3 indicates infection and inflammation, which is expected in osteomyelitis. Long-term IV antibiotic therapy is a common treatment for osteomyelitis and may require a referral to avoid peripherl thrombophlebitis. Furosemide is a diuretic that may be prescribed for clients who have fluid retention or hypertension, which are not related to osteomyelitis. A HbA1c of 6% indicates good glycemic control for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus, which can help prevent complications and infections.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Thrombocytopenia is a condition where the blood has a low platelet count, which can impair blood clotting and increase the risk of bleeding. Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clots from forming or growing, but it can also cause or worsen thrombocytopenia and bleeding.
Therefore, heparin is contraindicated for clients who have thrombocytopenia or are at risk of developing it. The other conditions are not contraindications to receiving heparin.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A flat lesion with irregular borders is one of the signs of melanoma, a type of skin cancer that arises from melanocytes, the cells that produce pigment. Other signs of melanoma include asymmetry, color variation, diameter greater than 6 mm, and evolution or change over time. The other options are more characteristic of other types of skin cancer or benign lesions.
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