A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has osteomyelitis in the left leg. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as requiring a referral?
The client has a WBC count of 20,000/mm3.
The client has a prescription for long-term IV antibiotic therapy.
The client has a prescription for furosemide.
The client has type 2 diabetes mellitus and a HbA1c of 6%.
The Correct Answer is B
A WBC count of 20,000/mm3 indicates infection and inflammation, which is expected in osteomyelitis. Long-term IV antibiotic therapy is a common treatment for osteomyelitis and may require a referral to avoid peripherl thrombophlebitis. Furosemide is a diuretic that may be prescribed for clients who have fluid retention or hypertension, which are not related to osteomyelitis. A HbA1c of 6% indicates good glycemic control for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus, which can help prevent complications and infections.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A high WBC count (leukocytosis) indicates an inflammatory response to an infection, such as pneumonia. The nurse should expect to see this value in a client who has pneumonia and monitor the client for signs and symptoms of sepsis or systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). The other values are within normal or expected ranges for a client who has pneumonia.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A WBC count of 20,000/mm3 indicates infection and inflammation, which is expected in osteomyelitis. Long-term IV antibiotic therapy is a common treatment for osteomyelitis and may require a referral to avoid peripherl thrombophlebitis. Furosemide is a diuretic that may be prescribed for clients who have fluid retention or hypertension, which are not related to osteomyelitis. A HbA1c of 6% indicates good glycemic control for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus, which can help prevent complications and infections.
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