A nurse is preparing to administer testosterone gel to a client who has hypogonadism. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Apply the gel to the client’s genital region.
Instruct the client to have his testosterone checked in 1 week.
Advise the client to wait 1 hr before showering or swimming.
Instruct the client to apply the gel every other day.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Applying testosterone gel to the genital region is contraindicated, as it increases irritation and absorption variability. It should be applied to clean, dry skin on the shoulders, upper arms, or abdomen to ensure safety and efficacy, making this action incorrect and unsafe.
Choice B reason: Checking testosterone levels in 1 week is premature, as steady-state levels typically require 2-4 weeks to stabilize. Monitoring too early may yield inaccurate results, leading to improper dose adjustments. This timing is not standard, making it an incorrect instruction.
Choice C reason: Advising the client to wait 1 hour before showering or swimming ensures adequate absorption of testosterone gel through the skin. Premature water exposure can wash off the gel, reducing efficacy. This aligns with manufacturer guidelines, making it the correct action.
Choice D reason: Applying testosterone gel every other day is incorrect, as daily application maintains consistent hormone levels for hypogonadism treatment. Alternate-day dosing disrupts therapeutic levels, reducing effectiveness. Daily use is standard, making this instruction inappropriate for proper administration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: A subdural hematoma increases complication risk during electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) due to elevated intracranial pressure. ECT-induced seizures can worsen bleeding or cause herniation, posing significant neurological risks. This condition requires careful evaluation, making it the critical risk factor for complications.
Choice B reason: Hyperthyroidism may increase heart rate or metabolic demand but is not a primary risk for ECT complications. With proper management, it poses minimal risk compared to intracranial issues, so this is not the most concerning condition, making it incorrect.
Choice C reason: Renal calculi do not directly impact ECT safety, as they are unrelated to neurological or cardiovascular risks during seizures. This condition is manageable and not a significant complication risk, so it is incorrect for this scenario.
Choice D reason: Diabetes mellitus requires monitoring during ECT due to fasting or medication effects, but it is not a primary risk for complications. With proper glucose management, risks are minimal, so this is incorrect compared to a subdural hematoma’s impact.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Dehydration is not directly associated with gastroesophageal reflux, which involves gastric acid backflow. Dehydration affects fluid balance, not reflux mechanisms, so this statement is inaccurate and irrelevant to preterm contractions, making it incorrect.
Choice B reason: Dehydration is not caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit; rather, it may elevate these due to hemoconcentration. This statement reverses the relationship, making it factually incorrect and unrelated to preterm labor risks.
Choice C reason: Dehydration can increase preterm labor risk by reducing uterine blood flow and triggering contractions via oxytocin release. This evidence-based link supports hydration as a preventive measure, making it the correct statement for teaching in this scenario.
Choice D reason: Dehydration is treated with fluid replacement, not calcium supplements, which address bone health or specific deficiencies. This treatment is irrelevant to dehydration or preterm labor, making it an incorrect and inappropriate recommendation.
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