A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's 75 mL/hr by continuous IV infusion. The drop factor on the manual IV tubing is 20 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the IV flow rate to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["25"]
To calculate the IV flow rate in gtt/min, you need to multiply the infusion rate in mL/hr by the drop factor in gtt/mL and divide by 60 min/hr. In this case, the formula is (75 mL/hr x 20 gtt/mL) / 60 min/hr = 25 gtt/min. Therefore, the nurse should set the IV flow rate to deliver 25 gtt/min.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["25"]
Explanation
To calculate the IV flow rate in gtt/min, you need to multiply the infusion rate in mL/hr by the drop factor in gtt/mL and divide by 60 min/hr. In this case, the formula is (75 mL/hr x 20 gtt/mL) / 60 min/hr = 25 gtt/min. Therefore, the nurse should set the IV flow rate to deliver 25 gtt/min.
Correct Answer is ["1"]
Explanation
To answer this question, you need to convert the dosage of fentanyl from micrograms (mcg) to milligrams (mg). One milligram is equal to 1000 micrograms, so 50 mcg is equal to 0.05 mg. Then, you need to use the formula D/H x Q, where D is the desired dose, H is the dose on hand, and Q is the quantity. In this case, D is 0.05 mg, H is 0.05 mg/mL, and Q is the volume in milliliters. Plugging these values into the formula, you get:
0.05 mg / 0.05 mg/mL x Q
Q = 1 mL
Therefore, the nurse should administer 1 mL of fentanyl per dose.
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