A nurse is caring for a client whose current bag of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) has finished infusing, and the next bag is not yet available. Which of the following fluids should the nurse prepare to administer?
Dextrose 10% in water
0.9% sodium chloride
0.45% sodium chloride
Lactated Ringer's
The Correct Answer is A
Total parenteral nutrition contains high concentrations of glucose, which stimulates the pancreas to secrete significant amounts of insulin. Abrupt cessation of this hypertonic solution can lead to a rapid drop in blood glucose levels, resulting in rebound hypoglycemia. Maintaining a consistent dextrose source is critical until the next TPN bag is prepared.
Rationale:
A. Dextrose 10% in water (D10W) is the appropriate fluid to administer because it provides enough glucose to prevent rebound hypoglycemia when TPN is unavailable. The patient's pancreas is primed to release high levels of insulin in response to the TPN; without a continued dextrose source, the patient's blood sugar will plummet. D10W serves as a temporary bridge to maintain glycemic stability.
B. 0.9% sodium chloride is an isotonic solution that provides volume and electrolytes but contains no glucose. Administering this fluid alone would fail to prevent the severe hypoglycemia that occurs when the high-glucose TPN infusion is suddenly stopped. While it is useful for many clinical situations, it is inappropriate as a substitute for TPN in a patient requiring glucose maintenance.
C. 0.45% sodium chloride is a hypotonic solution used for cellular dehydration and does not contain the calories or sugar necessary to counteract the patient's high insulin levels. Using this solution when TPN runs out would leave the patient vulnerable to symptomatic hypoglycemia and potential neurological complications. It is an inadequate substitute for the high dextrose concentration required by the patient's current metabolic state.
D. Lactated Ringer's is a balanced crystalloid solution used for fluid resuscitation and electrolyte replacement, but it contains negligible amounts of carbohydrate. It cannot maintain the blood glucose levels of a patient who has been receiving hypertonic TPN. The nurse must prioritize a dextrose-containing solution to avoid the life-threatening consequences of a sudden cessation of parenteral nutrition support.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Phenytoin is a hydantoin anticonvulsantthat stabilizes neuronal membranes by delaying the influx of sodium ions during action potentials. It has a narrow therapeutic indexand significant effects on cardiac conduction, specifically lengthening the refractory period. Due to its potential to depress myocardial automaticity, it is strictly avoided in patients with certain pre-existing conduction system abnormalities.
Rationale:
A.Sinus bradycardia is a major contraindication for phenytoin because the drug can further depress cardiac conduction and automaticity. Phenytoin possesses class IB antiarrhythmic properties, which can lead to severe cardiovascular collapse or heart block in patients with slow heart rates. Administering this drug to a bradycardic patient poses a life-threatening risk of asystole.
B.A history of cholecystitis, or inflammation of the gallbladder, does not contraindicate the use of phenytoin for seizure management. While phenytoin is metabolized by the liver, it does not have a direct impact on gallbladder function or the formation of gallstones. The nurse would prioritize monitoring liver enzymes rather than focusing on a history of cholecystitis.
C.Taking vitamin B12 supplements does not prevent a patient from receiving phenytoin, as there is no dangerous interaction between the two. Interestingly, long-term phenytoin use is actually associated with folate deficiency rather than issues with B12. Supplements are generally safe and may be necessary for patients with concurrent nutritional deficiencies during anticonvulsant therapy.
D.Ibuprofen is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug that does not have a documented clinical contraindication with the administration of phenytoin. While phenytoin has many drug-drug interactions involving the cytochrome P450 system, ibuprofen is not typically one that causes toxicity. The nurse can safely administer both medications as long as standard monitoring is performed.
Correct Answer is ["B","H"]
Explanation
Spironolactoneis a potassium-sparing diuretic that functions as an aldosterone antagonistin the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct. It promotes the excretion of sodium and water while retaining potassium, making it effective for hypertension but dangerous in the presence of renal insufficiency. Significant contraindications include pre-existing hyperkalemiaor concurrent use of other medications that inhibit the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, as these combinations exponentially increase the risk of lethal cardiac dysrhythmias.
Rationale:
A. The client is currently taking lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, which also increases serum potassium by suppressing aldosterone secretion. Combining lisinopril with spironolactone creates a synergistic effect that leads to severe hyperkalemia. This drug-drug interaction is a major clinical concern because both agents reduce the kidneys' ability to excrete potassium. The nurse must report this concurrent therapy to prevent potential cardiac toxicityresulting from excessive potassium accumulation.
B. The client's potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L already indicates hyperkalemia, as it exceeds the normal physiological limit of 5.0 mEq/L. Administering spironolactone to a client with an already elevated potassium concentration is strictly contraindicated. Increasing the potassium burden through potassium-sparingeffects could lead to peaked T waves, conduction blocks, or asystole. This laboratory finding must be addressed and corrected before any further potassium-retaining medications are administered.
C. A BUN(blood urea nitrogen) of 30 mg/dL signifies impaired renal clearance and decreased glomerular filtration. Elevated nitrogenous waste products often indicate that the kidneys are unable to maintain proper electrolyte balance. Since spironolactone relies on renal excretion and affects renal tubular transport, its use in a client with azotemia is highly risky. This finding suggests the client is at an increased risk for metabolic imbalancesif the diuretic is initiated.
D. A creatininelevel of 2 mg/dL is double the upper limit of the normal range, indicating significant renal dysfunction. Spironolactone is generally contraindicated or requires extreme caution in patients with a creatinine clearance that is significantly reduced. Impaired renal function prevents the body from managing the potassium-sparing effects of the drug, leading to a rapid and dangerous rise in serum electrolytes. This objective marker of kidney failuremakes the new prescription inappropriate for the client's current clinical status.
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