A nurse is caring for a client who has SLE and is experiencing an episode of Raynaud's phenomenon. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate?
Client report of intense feeling of heat in the fingers
Pallor of the toes with cold exposure
Feet that become reddened with ambulation
Swelling of the joints of the fingers
The Correct Answer is B
A. This is not typical for Raynaud's phenomenon. Instead, Raynaud's is characterized by episodes of reduced blood flow to the extremities, often triggered by cold or stress, leading to sensations of coldness or numbness rather than warmth.
B. This finding aligns with Raynaud's phenomenon. During an episode, the blood vessels constrict in response to cold or stress, leading to pallor (whiteness) in the affected areas, such as the toes and fingers. This is a classic symptom of the condition.
C. While feet can become reddened due to increased blood flow after rewarming or after exposure to warmth, this is not a characteristic feature of Raynaud's phenomenon. In Raynaud's, the affected areas typically exhibit color changes from white (pallor) to blue (cyanosis) and then red (hyperemia) as blood flow returns, but redness upon ambulation is not specifically indicative of the phenomenon.
D. Swelling of the joints can occur in SLE due to arthritis or inflammation but is not a direct symptom of Raynaud's phenomenon. Raynaud's primarily affects blood flow and does not inherently cause joint swelling; however, a client with SLE may experience joint symptoms due to other underlying inflammatory processes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Epoetin Alfa is typically used to treat anemia, and it is often indicated when hemoglobin (Hgb) levels are below 11 g/dL. Therefore, if the Hgb is less than 11, it would be appropriate to administer the medication to help increase red blood cell production.
B. Do not hold. An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 120 seconds indicates a prolonged coagulation time, which increases the risk of bleeding. However, Epoetin Alfa does not have a direct impact on coagulation, so this value alone would not warrant holding the medication.
C. Epoetin Alfa is generally not indicated if the Hgb level is already above 11 g/dL, particularly if there’s a risk of increasing the Hgb above the recommended therapeutic range (often above 12 g/dL). If the Hgb exceeds this level, the medication should be held to prevent complications such as thromboembolic events.
D. A PT/INR of 3.5 indicates a significantly prolonged prothrombin time, suggesting a high risk of bleeding. However, Epoetin Alfa does not directly cause bleeding.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. While anemia is a common finding in aplastic anemia, it is not the most comprehensive answer. Aplastic anemia results in a deficiency of all blood cell types due to bone marrow failure, so while anemia is present, it does not fully capture the extent of the disorder.
B. This is the most accurate choice. Pancytopenia refers to the simultaneous reduction of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. In aplastic anemia, the bone marrow fails to produce adequate blood cells, leading to this triad of cytopenias, making it the hallmark of the disease.
C. Neutropenia, which is a low level of neutrophils (a type of white blood cell), can occur in aplastic anemia. However, it is only one component of the broader condition and does not represent the complete picture of the disease.
D. Leukopenia refers to a low white blood cell count. Like neutropenia, it can be a finding in aplastic anemia, but it does not encompass the anemia and thrombocytopenia that also occur.
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