The nurse is reviewing lab results for a patient and the white blood cell (WBC) count is elevated at 12,000. Which of the following is a cause of increasing WBC count? (Select all that apply)
Trauma
Hyperglycemia
Infection
Inflammation
Steroid Injection
Correct Answer : A,C,D
A. Trauma can cause an elevated WBC count as part of the body’s response to injury. The immune system reacts to tissue damage by increasing WBC production to facilitate healing and fight potential infections.
B. Hyperglycemia itself does not directly cause an elevated WBC count. However, it may be associated with conditions like diabetes, where infections are more common. Therefore, while hyperglycemia can occur concurrently with elevated WBC counts, it is not a direct cause of the increase.
C. Infection is one of the most common causes of an elevated WBC count. The body responds to infections (bacterial, viral, etc.) by increasing WBC production to help combat the invading pathogens.
D. Inflammation, whether due to autoimmune conditions, allergies, or other causes, can also lead to an increase in WBC count. The inflammatory process triggers the immune response, resulting in elevated levels of white blood cells.
E. While steroid injections can influence WBC counts, they often cause a redistribution of white blood cells rather than an increase in production. Corticosteroids can cause a decrease in certain types of white blood cells (like lymphocytes) but may increase neutrophils due to a release from the bone marrow.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. This is not typical for Raynaud's phenomenon. Instead, Raynaud's is characterized by episodes of reduced blood flow to the extremities, often triggered by cold or stress, leading to sensations of coldness or numbness rather than warmth.
B. This finding aligns with Raynaud's phenomenon. During an episode, the blood vessels constrict in response to cold or stress, leading to pallor (whiteness) in the affected areas, such as the toes and fingers. This is a classic symptom of the condition.
C. While feet can become reddened due to increased blood flow after rewarming or after exposure to warmth, this is not a characteristic feature of Raynaud's phenomenon. In Raynaud's, the affected areas typically exhibit color changes from white (pallor) to blue (cyanosis) and then red (hyperemia) as blood flow returns, but redness upon ambulation is not specifically indicative of the phenomenon.
D. Swelling of the joints can occur in SLE due to arthritis or inflammation but is not a direct symptom of Raynaud's phenomenon. Raynaud's primarily affects blood flow and does not inherently cause joint swelling; however, a client with SLE may experience joint symptoms due to other underlying inflammatory processes.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Methotrexate (MTX) is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) that helps slow disease progression but does not provide immediate pain relief. NSAIDs and steroids may be used for symptomatic relief, but MTX alone can manage both pain and disease progression over time.
B. This response is unprofessional and dismissive. It implies that the medication regimen is based solely on the patient's insurance coverage rather than their medical needs. It does not address the patient’s question and could undermine trust in the healthcare team.
C. Methotrexate does not primarily treat nausea; rather, it is used to manage rheumatoid arthritis. While some patients may experience nausea as a side effect of MTX or other medications, this is not its primary purpose.
D. Methotrexate is indeed a DMARD that can take weeks to months to show its full benefits in controlling inflammation and slowing disease progression. Meanwhile, NSAIDs or corticosteroids may be prescribed to provide quicker relief from symptoms such as pain and swelling.
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