A nurse is caring for a client who has a life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmia. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?
Verapamil
Digoxin
Dopamine
Amiodarone
The Correct Answer is D
A. Verapamil: Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker primarily used to treat supraventricular
tachycardias, not ventricular dysrhythmias. It is not typically used for life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias.
B. Digoxin: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used primarily for atrial fibrillation and heart failure, not ventricular dysrhythmias. It is not typically used for life-threatening ventricular
dysrhythmias.
C. Dopamine: Dopamine is a sympathomimetic medication used for hemodynamic support in hypotension and shock. While it may be used in some cases of unstable bradycardia, it is not the first-line medication for life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias.
D. Amiodarone: Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication used for the treatment of various ventricular and supraventricular dysrhythmias, including life-threatening ventricular
dysrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. It is often used as a first-line medication for these conditions due to its efficacy and safety profile. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate administering amiodarone for the client's life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["7.5"]
Explanation
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms. We can use the formula 1 kg = 2.2 lb. So, 132 lb / 2.2 = 60 kg.
Calculate the total daily dose of chloramphenicol for the client. We can use the formula Dose (mg) = Weight (kg) x Dosage (mg/kg). So, 60 kg x 50 mg/kg = 3000 mg.
Divide the total daily dose by 4 to get the dose for each administration. So, 3000 mg / 4 = 750 mg.
Calculate the volume of chloramphenicol solution needed for each dose. We can use the formula Volume (mL) = Dose (mg) / Concentration (mg/mL). So, 750 mg / 100 mg/mL =
7.5 mL.
Round the answer to the nearest tenth. So, the nurse should give 7.5 mL of chloramphenicol solution with each dose.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The client has a history of anaphylaxis following a bee sting: This finding is not directly related to the safety of taking alendronate for osteoporosis.
B. The client has a first-degree relative who has Paget's disease: While family history is
important in assessing the risk of osteoporosis, it is not a direct safety risk for taking alendronate.
C. The client is postmenopausal: Postmenopausal status is a common indication for the use of alendronate to prevent or treat osteoporosis. It is not a safety risk.
D. The client has immobility that restricts her to a supine position: Immobility, especially in a supine position, can increase the risk of esophageal irritation and reflux when taking alendronate. Therefore, this finding poses a safety risk for the client when taking this medication.
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