A nurse is caring for a 9-year-old child on the pediatric unit.
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.
The nurse should plan to
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Rationale for correct choices
• Inspect the child’s oropharynx: The child has bright red emesis and visible bleeding in the posterior pharynx, which indicates active post-tonsillectomy hemorrhage. Direct visualization helps confirm the bleeding source and severity. Early inspection supports rapid intervention because post-operative tonsillar bleeding can progress quickly and become life-threatening.
• Obtaining a set of vital signs: Active bleeding and vomiting bright red blood require immediate reassessment of vital signs to detect tachycardia, hypotension, or respiratory compromise. Hemoglobin and hematocrit are already low, increasing the child’s risk for hemodynamic instability. Timely vital signs guide urgent decisions about fluid resuscitation and notifying the provider.
Rationale for incorrect choices
• Offer the child a red popsicle: Providing red-colored fluids can mask ongoing bleeding and delay recognition of hemorrhage. The priority is to assess and stabilize the child with known bleeding, not to offer oral intake. This intervention risks obscuring the color of emesis or oral bleeding.
• Place the child in a supine position: Supine positioning increases the risk of aspiration when bleeding or vomiting is present. The child should be maintained upright to allow drainage and airway protection. Supine positioning does not address the current complication and may worsen respiratory safety.
• Encouraging the child to cough and deep breathe: Coughing can dislodge clots and worsen post-tonsillectomy bleeding. The child already has active bright red bleeding, so stimulating airway pressure would increase hemorrhage risk. This intervention is inappropriate in immediate postoperative bleeding scenarios.
• Requesting a prescription for codeine: Codeine is contraindicated in children after tonsillectomy due to risk of respiratory depression from ultra-rapid metabolism. Pain is mild, and bleeding—not pain—is the priority. Requesting codeine does not address the current danger of hemorrhage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"C"}
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices
• Pulmonary embolism: The client exhibits sudden onset of dyspnea, chest discomfort, tachypnea, hypoxemia (oxygen saturation 92% on 2 L O₂), and appears in respiratory distress, all of which are classic signs of a pulmonary embolism. Postoperative orthopedic patients, especially after hip arthroplasty, are at high risk due to immobility, venous stasis, and hypercoagulability.
• Recent surgery: The client’s recent total hip arthroplasty increases the risk of thromboembolic events. Surgical procedures, particularly major orthopedic surgeries, create a hypercoagulable state and contribute to venous stasis, which can precipitate a pulmonary embolism.
Rationale for incorrect choices
• Pneumothorax: Pneumothorax typically presents with unilateral chest pain, sudden shortness of breath, and decreased or absent breath sounds on one side. The client’s crackles are bilateral and S3/S4 heart sounds are present, which are not consistent with pneumothorax.
• Pneumonia: Although the client has fever and crackles, the sudden onset of symptoms and acute respiratory distress are more consistent with pulmonary embolism rather than pneumonia, which usually develops gradually. Additionally, the timing shortly after surgery favors a thromboembolic event over an infectious process.
• Tobacco use: The client reports no history of tobacco use, making this an irrelevant risk factor for the current acute episode.
• Activity level: While immobility can contribute to thrombus formation, the client ambulated with assistance earlier, and the more significant risk factor remains recent surgery, which directly predisposes to pulmonary embolism.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
A. WBC count 22,000/mm³ (5,000 to 10,000/mm³): Leukocytosis is a common finding in appendicitis due to the inflammatory and infectious process. A significantly elevated WBC count supports the diagnosis and indicates the body’s response to infection.
B. Diarrhea: Diarrhea is not a typical manifestation of appendicitis. Clients more commonly present with constipation or localized abdominal pain rather than frequent loose stools, so this finding is not characteristic.
C. Rebound tenderness: Rebound tenderness, especially in the right lower quadrant, is a classic sign of peritoneal irritation associated with appendicitis. Pain that increases when pressure is released is a key physical examination finding.
D. Low-grade fever: A low-grade fever often accompanies appendicitis due to the body’s inflammatory response. Fever typically develops as the condition progresses and can help differentiate appendicitis from other causes of abdominal pain.
E. Hyperactive bowel sounds: Hyperactive bowel sounds are more commonly associated with gastroenteritis or early intestinal obstruction. In appendicitis, bowel sounds are often normal or decreased, particularly if peritoneal irritation is present.
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