A nurse is caring for a 37-year-old gravida para client who is at 14 weeks of gestation.
The client asks, "Why are you taking my blood pressure? It's always been normal.”. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"No need to worry about that, let's talk about how you're feeling.”.
"Because blood pressure often increases early in the second trimester of pregnancy.”.
"Your age is a risk factor for developing high blood pressure during pregnancy.”.
"We take blood pressure on all pregnant clients as part of routine care.”.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
While addressing the client's feelings is important, dismissing the need for blood pressure monitoring is not appropriate nursing practice during pregnancy. Routine blood pressure checks are essential for detecting potential complications.
Choice B rationale
While blood pressure can increase in the second trimester due to physiological changes like increased blood volume, it doesn't invariably increase early in the second trimester, and this statement might cause unnecessary alarm if the client's blood pressure is currently normal.
Choice C rationale
Advanced maternal age (typically over 35) is a risk factor for gestational hypertension, but stating this directly without knowing the client's baseline blood pressure or other risk factors might be alarming and isn't the primary reason for routine monitoring at every prenatal visit.
Choice D rationale
Routine blood pressure monitoring is a standard component of prenatal care for all pregnant clients, regardless of their past medical history or perceived risk. This allows for the early detection of gestational hypertension or preeclampsia, which can develop even in women with previously normal blood pressure. Early detection and management are crucial for maternal and fetal well-being.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Condition
Preterm labor is defined as the onset of regular contractions leading to cervical change before 37 weeks of gestation. This client’s symptoms, including uterine contractions every 4–5 minutes, cervical effacement of 50%, a positive fetal fibronectin test, and shortened cervical length, strongly indicate preterm labor rather than pyelonephritis, placental abruption, or cervical insufficiency.
Rationale for Correct Actions
Magnesium sulfate functions as a tocolytic, suppressing contractions by inhibiting calcium influx in myometrial cells, thereby delaying preterm birth and reducing neonatal complications. Betamethasone accelerates fetal lung maturity by increasing surfactant production, reducing the risk of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome if preterm delivery occurs.
Rationale for Correct Parameters
Cervical effacement is a direct indicator of labor progression, showing changes in cervical thinning that accompany dilation. Monitoring effacement allows assessment of tocolytic effectiveness. Contraction frequency reveals labor severity and the response to magnesium sulfate. Persistent contractions despite treatment indicate the need for additional interventions.
Rationale for Incorrect Conditions
Pyelonephritis causes systemic symptoms like fever, flank pain, and bacteremia rather than uterine contractions and cervical changes. Placental abruption typically presents with painful vaginal bleeding and uterine tenderness, which are absent here. Cervical insufficiency is painless and lacks regular contractions, with cervical changes occurring silently rather than progressively.
Rationale for Incorrect Actions
Urine culture identifies infection but does not directly treat preterm labor. RhoGAM is necessary for Rh-negative individuals, which is irrelevant in this case. IV hydration may help with contractions but is not a primary intervention.
Rationale for Incorrect Parameters
Flank pain suggests pyelonephritis rather than preterm labor. Vaginal bleeding is associated with abruption or miscarriage, not preterm labor without cervical rupture. Fetal heart rate variability is useful in fetal assessment but does not directly indicate labor progression.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The client at 6 weeks gestation exhibiting severe abdominal pain, hypotension (86/58 mm Hg), and tachycardia (132/min) suggests a potential ruptured ectopic pregnancy or other acute abdominal emergency requiring immediate intervention. Hypotension indicates inadequate tissue perfusion, and tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. Severe pain further indicates an acute process that necessitates prompt assessment and treatment to prevent further hemodynamic instability and potential life-threatening complications.
Choice B rationale
While a client with an ectopic pregnancy requires monitoring and care, the vital signs reported (blood pressure 128/84 mm Hg, pulse 88/min) are within normal limits. Normal blood pressure ranges are typically systolic 90-120 mm Hg and diastolic 60-80 mm Hg, and a normal pulse rate is generally 60-100 beats per minute. Although emotional distress from the diagnosis is important, the physiological parameters do not indicate an immediate critical threat compared to the client in Choice A.
Choice C rationale
A client at 9 weeks gestation who received methotrexate for an ectopic pregnancy and reports moderate pain and dizziness with stable vital signs (blood pressure 116/80 mm Hg, pulse 86/min) requires assessment for expected side effects of the medication or signs of treatment failure. Methotrexate can cause abdominal pain as it works to dissolve the pregnancy. While monitoring is necessary, the stable vital signs do not suggest an immediate life-threatening emergency compared to the client in Choice A.
Choice D rationale
A client at 8 weeks gestation with moderate vaginal bleeding, minimal abdominal pain, and stable vital signs (blood pressure 118/72 mm Hg, pulse 96/min) may be experiencing a threatened or inevitable miscarriage. While vaginal bleeding in early pregnancy warrants investigation and monitoring, the stable vital signs and minimal pain do not indicate an immediate critical emergency requiring prioritization over the client in Choice A who presents with signs of hemodynamic instability. .
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