A nurse is caring for a 26-year-old female client who is at 26 weeks of gestation in the antepartum unit.
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress.
The Correct Answer is []
Rationale for Correct Condition
Preterm labor is defined as the onset of regular contractions leading to cervical change before 37 weeks of gestation. This client’s symptoms, including uterine contractions every 4–5 minutes, cervical effacement of 50%, a positive fetal fibronectin test, and shortened cervical length, strongly indicate preterm labor rather than pyelonephritis, placental abruption, or cervical insufficiency.
Rationale for Correct Actions
Magnesium sulfate functions as a tocolytic, suppressing contractions by inhibiting calcium influx in myometrial cells, thereby delaying preterm birth and reducing neonatal complications. Betamethasone accelerates fetal lung maturity by increasing surfactant production, reducing the risk of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome if preterm delivery occurs.
Rationale for Correct Parameters
Cervical effacement is a direct indicator of labor progression, showing changes in cervical thinning that accompany dilation. Monitoring effacement allows assessment of tocolytic effectiveness. Contraction frequency reveals labor severity and the response to magnesium sulfate. Persistent contractions despite treatment indicate the need for additional interventions.
Rationale for Incorrect Conditions
Pyelonephritis causes systemic symptoms like fever, flank pain, and bacteremia rather than uterine contractions and cervical changes. Placental abruption typically presents with painful vaginal bleeding and uterine tenderness, which are absent here. Cervical insufficiency is painless and lacks regular contractions, with cervical changes occurring silently rather than progressively.
Rationale for Incorrect Actions
Urine culture identifies infection but does not directly treat preterm labor. RhoGAM is necessary for Rh-negative individuals, which is irrelevant in this case. IV hydration may help with contractions but is not a primary intervention.
Rationale for Incorrect Parameters
Flank pain suggests pyelonephritis rather than preterm labor. Vaginal bleeding is associated with abruption or miscarriage, not preterm labor without cervical rupture. Fetal heart rate variability is useful in fetal assessment but does not directly indicate labor progression.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"D"}
Explanation
The nurse should first address the client’s calf findings followed by their stress about discharge.
Rationale for correct answers
Calf findings must be addressed first due to the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a known complication of cesarean delivery and postpartum immobility. The presence of unilateral calf edema (3 cm greater than the right) and tenderness, combined with an elevated D-dimer, strongly suggests a thrombotic process requiring urgent evaluation. If DVT is confirmed, anticoagulation therapy should be initiated promptly to prevent progression to pulmonary embolism.
Stress about discharge should be the second priority, as emotional concerns can affect adherence to postpartum care instructions. Addressing anxiety about recovery, follow-up visits, and newborn care can improve the client’s overall well-being and readiness for discharge.
Rationale for incorrect Response 1 options
- Breast engorgement: Although uncomfortable, this is a transient issue that can be managed with cold compresses and supportive bras. It does not pose an immediate health risk.
- Constipation: Postpartum bowel irregularities are expected after cesarean delivery; stool softeners and hydration can alleviate symptoms without urgency.
- Surgical incision pain: Rated only 2/10, indicating mild pain that does not require immediate intervention beyond routine analgesia.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While blood pressure can increase during the second trimester due to changes in the maternal cardiovascular system, it doesn't typically increase *early* in the second trimester. Physiologic changes usually lead to a slight decrease in blood pressure during the first and early second trimester before gradually returning to pre-pregnancy levels or potentially increasing later.
Choice B rationale
While multiparous women can develop gestational hypertension or preeclampsia, having had "several pregnancies" in the past does not inherently increase the risk of high blood pressure at 14 weeks gestation in the current pregnancy, especially if previous pregnancies were normotensive. Risk factors like age, pre-existing conditions, and family history are more significant.
Choice C rationale
Advanced maternal age, generally considered 35 years or older, is a known risk factor for developing gestational hypertension and preeclampsia during pregnancy. Physiological changes associated with aging can affect vascular function and increase susceptibility to hypertensive disorders.
Choice D rationale
While addressing the client's feelings is important for therapeutic communication, it avoids answering her direct question about why her blood pressure is being taken. The nurse has a responsibility to provide accurate information regarding routine assessments during pregnancy.
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