A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion. Which of the following findings indicates fluid volume overload?
Decreased bowel sounds
Urine output of 360 mL/12 hr
Blood pressure of 100/74 mm Hg
Distended neck veins
The Correct Answer is D
A. Decreased bowel sounds: Decreased bowel sounds are often associated with conditions like ileus, abdominal surgery, or bowel obstruction, rather than directly indicating fluid volume excess. Fluid overload typically affects the cardiovascular and respiratory systems first.
B. Urine output of 360 mL/12 hr: While this is a low urine output and could suggest dehydration or renal impairment, it is more indicative of fluid volume deficit rather than fluid volume excess. Excess fluid volume would generally be associated with adequate or increased urine output if renal function is normal.
C. Blood pressure of 100/74 mm Hg: This blood pressure reading is within normal limits for many adults and does not specifically suggest fluid overload. In cases of fluid volume excess, a client might actually exhibit elevated blood pressure due to increased circulatory volume.
D. Distended neck veins: Distended neck veins, also known as jugular venous distention, are a classic sign of fluid volume excess. They occur because increased intravascular volume causes elevated venous pressure, which becomes visible in the neck veins when the client is positioned at a 30- to 45-degree angle.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A toddler who has periorbital cellulitis and has an axillary temperature of 37.6°C (99.7°F): A mild temperature in the context of periorbital cellulitis is expected and not an immediate emergency. Although periorbital cellulitis can be serious, this temperature alone does not demand immediate action over other critical symptoms.
B. An adolescent who has influenza and reports a headache of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10: A headache with influenza is common and requires monitoring, but unless there are signs of severe neurological involvement, it is not the highest priority compared to potential circulatory compromise.
C. An infant who had a pyloromyotomy 12 hr ago and spit up after the last feeding: Mild vomiting or spitting up is common following a pyloromyotomy and is not unusual within the first 24 hours postoperatively. It generally does not require immediate intervention unless persistent or worsening.
D. A child who had a cast placed 4 hr ago and reports numbness in the affected extremity: Numbness may indicate impaired circulation or nerve compression, a sign of possible compartment syndrome. This is a surgical emergency that can result in permanent damage if not promptly assessed and treated.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A client who is displaying aggression: Using a gait belt on an aggressive client is unsafe because sudden movements or resistance could lead to injury for both the client and the caregiver. Aggressive behavior requires de-escalation strategies before considering physical assistance or mobility interventions like a gait belt.
B. A client who has had chest trauma: Gait belts should be avoided in clients with chest trauma because the pressure applied around the torso can exacerbate injuries such as rib fractures, pulmonary contusions, or other thoracic complications, posing significant health risks during mobilization.
C. A client who has limited arm strength: A gait belt is appropriate for clients with limited arm strength because it provides secure support around the waist without requiring the client to rely heavily on their upper limbs. It allows for safer ambulation and transfer by offering the caregiver a firm point of control.
D. A client who has a thoracic incision: Applying a gait belt over or near a thoracic incision can interfere with wound healing, cause pain, and increase the risk of wound dehiscence. Alternative methods for assisting mobility should be used for clients with fresh surgical sites in the thoracic region.
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