A nurse is assessing a client who takes prescribed daily aspirin. Which of the following findings indicates salicylism?
Diplopia
Joint pain
Facial edema
Tinnitus
The Correct Answer is D
Salicylism is a toxic condition resulting from excessive salicylate accumulation, often characterized by acid-base disturbances and neurological changes. It disrupts metabolic processes and affects the vestibulocochlear nerve, leading to distinct sensory impairments. Prompt recognition of early toxicity is vital to prevent severe respiratory alkalosis or metabolic acidosis.
Rationale:
A. Diplopia, or double vision, is not a hallmark sign of early salicylate toxicity or salicylism. While severe poisoning can eventually lead to central nervous system depression and visual disturbances, it is not the primary indicator used for clinical screening. The nurse should look for signs more specific to the Eighth cranial nerve and acid-base status when assessing for aspirin toxicity.
B. Joint pain is an indication for taking aspirin rather than a sign of its toxicity. Aspirin is frequently used to treat inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis or osteoarthritis due to its inhibition of cyclooxygenase. If a client continues to experience joint pain, it suggests the dosage is therapeutic or perhaps insufficient, rather than indicating an overdose or salicylism.
C. Facial edema is more indicative of a type I hypersensitivity reaction or angioedema rather than chronic salicylate toxicity. While a patient can be allergic to aspirin, this finding represents an acute immunological response rather than the metabolic syndrome of salicylism. Salicylism specifically targets the auditory system and metabolic pathways rather than causing localized soft tissue swelling.
D. Tinnitus, described as a ringing or buzzing in the ears, is the most common early clinical manifestation of salicylism. It occurs because high levels of aspirin are toxic to the hair cells within the cochlea and affect the acoustic nerve. The nurse must instruct the client that the onset of tinnitus requires immediate cessation of the medication and a medical evaluation to prevent further toxicity.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The shingles vaccine (specifically live attenuated versions) is contraindicated or requires caution in individuals who are immunocompromised. Certain medications exert an immunosuppressiveeffect by interfering with cellular replication or the inflammatory response, which can lead to uncontrolled viral replicationof the vaccine strain in the host.
Rationale:
A.Methotrexate is an immunosuppressant and antimetabolite that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, leading to reduced white blood cell activity. Because the vaccine for shingles (Zostavax) contains live virus, patients on methotrexate may not be able to mount an appropriate immune response or may develop the infection. Caution or contraindication is necessary depending on the dose and the specific type of vaccine.
B.Estrogen replacement therapy does not significantly alter the immune system's ability to respond to vaccines. It is a hormone used to manage menopausal symptoms or osteoporosis and does not cause the leukopenia or immunosuppression associated with chemotherapy or autoimmune treatments. There is no contraindication for shingles immunization based on the use of estrogen medications in an adult client.
C.Esomeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used to reduce gastric acid secretion and treat gastroesophageal reflux disease. It does not have any systemic effect on the immune response or the efficacy of viral vaccines. Patients taking esomeprazole can safely receive the shingles vaccine without additional precautions regarding their immunological status or ability to process the immunization.
D.Metformin is an oral antidiabetic agent that improves insulin sensitivity and has no known immunosuppressive properties. It does not interfere with the body's ability to produce antibodies or manage the live attenuated virus found in certain vaccines. Therefore, a prescription for metformin would not serve as a reason for caution when scheduling a shingles immunization for a senior client.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Otic medication administration involves the instillation of sterile or non-sterile solutions into the external auditory canal. Proper positioning of the auricleis essential to straighten the ear canal and ensure the medication reaches the tympanic membrane.
Rationale:
A.Pulling the pinna up and back is the correct technique for an adult client to straighten the external auditory canal. This maneuver allows the drops to flow freely toward the eardrum rather than becoming trapped in the curves of the canal. For children under the age of 3, the nurse should teach the caregiver to pull the pinna down and back instead to achieve the same result.
B.Lying flat in bed is not the ideal position for receiving otic drops, as the medication may not flow deep enough into the canal. The client should be in a side-lying position with the affected ear facing upward to facilitate the gravitational flow of the solution. This position should be maintained for several minutes after instillation to ensure maximum absorption and prevent the medication from leaking out.
C.Cooling otic drops before administration is incorrect because cold solutions can cause extreme discomfort and trigger a vestibular response known as the caloric reflex. This reflex can result in severe vertigo, nausea, and nystagmus. Caregivers should be instructed to warm the medication container by rolling it between their hands to reach body temperature, ensuring a more comfortable and safe administration.
D.Tilting the head back is a technique used for ophthalmic or nasal instillations rather than otic medications. For the ear, the head must be tilted toward the opposite shoulder so the affected ear is horizontal and pointing toward the ceiling. Tilting the head backward would cause the drops to run down the side of the face rather than entering the ear canal effectively.
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