A nurse is assessing a client who had a recent stroke. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse the need for referral to an occupational therapist?

Memory loss

Receptive aphasia

Facial drooping

Unilateral neglect

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Rationale:
A. Memory loss may require referral to neuropsychology or speech therapy for cognitive rehabilitation, not occupational therapy.
B. Receptive aphasia (difficulty understanding language) is best addressed by a speech-language pathologist, not an occupational therapist.
C. Facial drooping relates to motor weakness and swallowing/speech issues, which are typically managed by physical therapy and speech therapy.
D. Unilateral neglect (ignoring one side of the body or environment) after a stroke affects the client’s ability to perform activities of daily living. Occupational therapy focuses on improving independence in self-care and adapting to such deficits.

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Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]

Explanation

Rationale:
A. Important for preventing future incidents, but not an immediate priority for the employee who is currently injured.
B. Critical to determine the chemical’s hazards and the correct emergency response, guiding immediate care.
C. Important for long-term safety and education but does not address the current injury.
D. Highest priority because the employee is experiencing burns and potential chemical injury; immediate treatment is necessary to prevent harm.
E. Essential to determine appropriate first aid, medical treatment, and reporting requirements; directly affects immediate care.
F. Preventive measure for the future; does not address the current exposure or injury.

A. A client who is receiving heparin and has an aPTT of 34 seconds (30 to 40 seconds). B. A client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus and uses an insulin pump. C. A client who has orthostatic hypotension and is receiving IV fluids, D. A client who is at risk for pressure injuries and has an albumin level of 4.2 g/dL (3.5 to 5 g/dL).

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Rationale:
A. An aPTT of 34 seconds is within the expected reference range for a client on heparin, so no interdisciplinary conference is required.
B. A client with type 1 diabetes using an insulin pump requires routine management and education, which can be handled by the primary nurse without a formal conference.
C. A client with orthostatic hypotension requiring IV fluids may need collaboration between nursing, medicine, physical therapy, and dietary services to manage fall risk, hydration, and mobility—making an interdisciplinary conference appropriate.
D. An albumin level of 4.2 g/dL is within the normal range, so this client is not at increased risk for pressure injuries requiring interdisciplinary planning.

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A nurse is assessing a client who had a recent stroke. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse the need for referral to an occupational therapist?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse manager is overseeing employees on their unit. Exhibits Select 3 actions the nurse manager should identify as the priority.

Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]

Explanation

A nurse working on a medical-surgical unit is managing the care of four clients. The nurse should schedule an interdisciplinary conference for which of the following clients?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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