A nurse is admitting an elderly client into a unit. During the initial assessment, the nurse notes an erythematous wound with partial-thickness skin loss. The wound does not contain slough and is located on the patient's right heel. How will the nurse stage this pressure ulcer?
Stage I Pressure ulcer.
Stage II Pressure ulcer.
Stage IV Pressure ulcer.
Stage II Pressure ulcer.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Stage I Pressure ulcer - This choice is not correct because a Stage I pressure ulcer is characterized by intact skin with non-blanchable redness over a bony prominence. There is no partial-thickness skin loss at this stage.
Choice B rationale:
Stage II Pressure ulcer - This is the correct choice. A Stage II pressure ulcer involves partial-thickness skin loss that presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, without slough. It may also manifest as an intact or open/ruptured serum-filled blister.
Choice C rationale:
Stage IV Pressure ulcer - This choice is not correct because a Stage IV pressure ulcer involves full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. There is no mention of such extensive tissue loss in the given scenario.
Choice D rationale:
Stage II Pressure ulcer - This choice is a duplicate of Choice B and is not correct for the reasons stated above.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should avoid assessing the popliteal pulse bilaterally at the same time. The popliteal pulse is located behind the knee and is relatively deep. Applying pressure on both sides of the knee to assess this pulse simultaneously can obstruct blood flow to the lower extremities. This is a particularly important consideration for clients with compromised circulation, such as those with peripheral vascular disease. Assessing this pulse sequentially is a safer approach.
Choice A rationale:
Assessing the femoral pulse bilaterally at the same time is generally acceptable. The femoral pulse is located in the groin area, and assessing it bilaterally doesn't impede blood flow significantly.
Choice C rationale:
Assessing the brachial pulse bilaterally at the same time is generally acceptable. The brachial pulse is located in the upper arm, and simultaneous assessment is unlikely to cause circulatory compromise.
Choice D rationale:
Assessing the carotid pulse bilaterally at the same time is discouraged. The carotid arteries are located in the neck, and applying bilateral pressure here can lead to reduced blood flow to the brain, potentially causing syncope (fainting) or other adverse effects. It's safer to assess this pulse sequentially.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Applying a moisture barrier ointment helps protect the skin from the effects of moisture exposure due to urinary incontinence. Prolonged exposure to urine can lead to skin breakdown, irritation, and infection. A moisture barrier ointment creates a protective barrier, reducing the risk of skin damage.
Choice B rationale:
Requesting a prescription for an indwelling urinary catheter is not typically the first intervention to prevent skin breakdown in clients with urinary incontinence. Catheters carry their own set of risks, including infection, and should be considered after other interventions have been explored.
Choice C rationale:
Repositioning the client every 8 hours is important for preventing pressure ulcers but may not be sufficient to prevent skin breakdown due to urinary incontinence. Clients with urinary incontinence should be repositioned more frequently to address the effects of moisture.
Choice D rationale:
Checking the client's skin every 8 hours is an important step, but it alone may not effectively prevent skin breakdown. Incontinence-associated dermatitis can develop quickly, so it's essential to implement protective measures like using a moisture barrier ointment.
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