A nurse is admitting an elderly client into a unit. During the initial assessment, the nurse notes an erythematous wound with partial-thickness skin loss. The wound does not contain slough and is located on the patient's right heel. How will the nurse stage this pressure ulcer?

Stage I Pressure ulcer.

Stage II Pressure ulcer.

Stage IV Pressure ulcer.

Stage II Pressure ulcer.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale:

Stage I Pressure ulcer - This choice is not correct because a Stage I pressure ulcer is characterized by intact skin with non-blanchable redness over a bony prominence. There is no partial-thickness skin loss at this stage.

Choice B rationale:

Stage II Pressure ulcer - This is the correct choice. A Stage II pressure ulcer involves partial-thickness skin loss that presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, without slough. It may also manifest as an intact or open/ruptured serum-filled blister.

Choice C rationale:

Stage IV Pressure ulcer - This choice is not correct because a Stage IV pressure ulcer involves full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. There is no mention of such extensive tissue loss in the given scenario.

Choice D rationale:

Stage II Pressure ulcer - This choice is a duplicate of Choice B and is not correct for the reasons stated above.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice B rationale:

The nurse should avoid assessing the popliteal pulse bilaterally at the same time. The popliteal pulse is located behind the knee and is relatively deep. Applying pressure on both sides of the knee to assess this pulse simultaneously can obstruct blood flow to the lower extremities. This is a particularly important consideration for clients with compromised circulation, such as those with peripheral vascular disease. Assessing this pulse sequentially is a safer approach.

Choice A rationale:

Assessing the femoral pulse bilaterally at the same time is generally acceptable. The femoral pulse is located in the groin area, and assessing it bilaterally doesn't impede blood flow significantly.

Choice C rationale:

Assessing the brachial pulse bilaterally at the same time is generally acceptable. The brachial pulse is located in the upper arm, and simultaneous assessment is unlikely to cause circulatory compromise.

Choice D rationale:

Assessing the carotid pulse bilaterally at the same time is discouraged. The carotid arteries are located in the neck, and applying bilateral pressure here can lead to reduced blood flow to the brain, potentially causing syncope (fainting) or other adverse effects. It's safer to assess this pulse sequentially.

A. "My child must be free from nits before returning to school.” B. "Toys that can't be dry cleaned or washed must be thrown out.” C. "I will treat all the family members to be on the safe side.” D. "All recently used clothing, bedding, and towels must be washed in hot water.”

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Requiring the child to be free from nits before returning to school might not be an accurate understanding of the situation. Nits are the eggs of head lice and may remain attached to the hair even after effective treatment. The presence of live lice is a more crucial factor to consider.

Choice B rationale:

Throwing out toys that can't be dry cleaned or washed is an unnecessary and extreme measure. Head lice do not survive long away from the human scalp, so the risk of transmission through inanimate objects like toys is minimal. Thoroughly cleaning and vacuuming the environment is more effective.

Choice C rationale:

Treating all family members is indeed a prudent approach. Head lice can spread easily within households, especially among close contacts. Treating everyone helps prevent re-infestation and disrupts the lice life cycle.

Choice D rationale:

Washing recently used clothing, bedding, and towels in hot water is a correct understanding of how to manage head lice. The high temperature kills lice and their eggs. It is an essential step in preventing the spread of lice and re-infestation.

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A nurse is admitting an elderly client into a unit. During the initial assessment, the nurse notes an erythematous wound with partial-thickness skin loss. The wound does not contain slough and is located on the patient's right heel. How will the nurse stage this pressure ulcer?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A Medical-Surgical nurse is assessing a client's circulatory system. Which of the following pulse sites should the nurse avoid assessing bilaterally at the same time?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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