A nurse is admitting an elderly client into a unit. During the initial assessment, the nurse notes an erythematous wound with partial-thickness skin loss. The wound does not contain slough and is located on the patient's right heel. How will the nurse stage this pressure ulcer?

Stage I Pressure ulcer.

Stage II Pressure ulcer.

Stage IV Pressure ulcer.

Stage II Pressure ulcer.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale:

Stage I Pressure ulcer - This choice is not correct because a Stage I pressure ulcer is characterized by intact skin with non-blanchable redness over a bony prominence. There is no partial-thickness skin loss at this stage.

Choice B rationale:

Stage II Pressure ulcer - This is the correct choice. A Stage II pressure ulcer involves partial-thickness skin loss that presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, without slough. It may also manifest as an intact or open/ruptured serum-filled blister.

Choice C rationale:

Stage IV Pressure ulcer - This choice is not correct because a Stage IV pressure ulcer involves full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. There is no mention of such extensive tissue loss in the given scenario.

Choice D rationale:

Stage II Pressure ulcer - This choice is a duplicate of Choice B and is not correct for the reasons stated above.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice B rationale:

The nurse should avoid assessing the popliteal pulse bilaterally at the same time. The popliteal pulse is located behind the knee and is relatively deep. Applying pressure on both sides of the knee to assess this pulse simultaneously can obstruct blood flow to the lower extremities. This is a particularly important consideration for clients with compromised circulation, such as those with peripheral vascular disease. Assessing this pulse sequentially is a safer approach.

Choice A rationale:

Assessing the femoral pulse bilaterally at the same time is generally acceptable. The femoral pulse is located in the groin area, and assessing it bilaterally doesn't impede blood flow significantly.

Choice C rationale:

Assessing the brachial pulse bilaterally at the same time is generally acceptable. The brachial pulse is located in the upper arm, and simultaneous assessment is unlikely to cause circulatory compromise.

Choice D rationale:

Assessing the carotid pulse bilaterally at the same time is discouraged. The carotid arteries are located in the neck, and applying bilateral pressure here can lead to reduced blood flow to the brain, potentially causing syncope (fainting) or other adverse effects. It's safer to assess this pulse sequentially.

A. Patient ate half of his breakfast tray. B. Patient has a raised erythematous rash below the knee. C. Patient has a capillary refill of less than 2 seconds. D. Patient is incontinent of stool.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

The choice "Patient ate half of his breakfast tray" is not the correct answer. While poor appetite or decreased intake can impact a patient's nutritional status, it is not a direct indicator of pressure ulcer risk.

Choice B rationale:

The choice "Patient has a raised erythematous rash below the knee" is not the correct answer. This might indicate a localized skin issue, such as an allergic reaction or dermatitis, but it is not a clear sign of pressure ulcer risk.

Choice C rationale:

The choice "Patient has a capillary refill of less than 2 seconds" is not the correct answer. Capillary refill time assesses peripheral circulation and is useful in evaluating perfusion, but it is not specifically indicative of pressure ulcer risk.

Choice D rationale:

The correct answer is "Patient is incontinent of stool." Choice D is the correct answer. Incontinence, especially fecal incontinence, increases the risk of pressure ulcer development. Prolonged exposure to moisture from urine or stool weakens the skin's integrity, making it more susceptible to breakdown when pressure is applied over bony prominences.

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A nurse is admitting an elderly client into a unit. During the initial assessment, the nurse notes an erythematous wound with partial-thickness skin loss. The wound does not contain slough and is located on the patient's right heel. How will the nurse stage this pressure ulcer?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A Medical-Surgical nurse is assessing a client's circulatory system. Which of the following pulse sites should the nurse avoid assessing bilaterally at the same time?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse on a Medical-Surgical unit is caring for an elderly patient. Which of the following nursing observations would indicate that the patient is at risk for developing a pressure ulcer?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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