A nurse in an acute mental health facility observes a client having a panic atack. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
Discuss the client's feelings prior to the panic atack.
Encourage the use of positive self-talk strategies
Instruct the client to use abdominal breathing
Administer an anti-anxiety medication
The Correct Answer is C
c. Instruct the client to use abdominal breathing.
When a client is experiencing a panic atack, the nurse's first priority is to help the client manage their symptoms and provide immediate relief. Instructing the client to use abdominal breathing is the most appropriate initial intervention.
Explanation for the other options:
a. Discuss the client's feelings prior to the panic atack. While discussing the client's feelings can be beneficial in addressing the underlying causes of anxiety, it may not be the most effective immediate intervention during a panic atack. The client's focus during a panic atack is typically on managing the physical symptoms and regaining control.
b. Encourage the use of positive self-talk strategies. Positive self-talk can be helpful in managing anxiety in general, but during a panic atack, the individual may have difficulty engaging in positive self-talk due to the intensity of symptoms. Addressing the immediate physical symptoms is a priority before exploring coping strategies.
d. Administer an anti-anxiety medication. Medication administration may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the first-line intervention for managing a panic atack. Non-pharmacological interventions, such as breathing techniques, should be implemented first. If the panic atack persists or worsens despite these interventions, medication may be considered.
In summary, during a panic atack, the immediate focus should be on helping the client manage their symptoms. Instructing the client to use abdominal breathing can help promote relaxation and reduce the intensity of the panic atack.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Answer: A
Rationale:
A) Ampicillin: Ampicillin is contraindicated for this client because it belongs to the penicillin class of antibiotics. Since the client is allergic to penicillin, administering ampicillin could trigger an allergic reaction, which could range from mild rash to severe anaphylaxis.
B) Erythromycin: Erythromycin is a macrolide antibiotic and can be used as an alternative for clients who are allergic to penicillin. It is often prescribed for group B streptococcus infections in penicillin-allergic clients, making it a suitable option in this case.
C) Cefazolin: Cefazolin is a cephalosporin antibiotic and is generally considered safe for clients with a penicillin allergy, except in cases of severe penicillin allergies. Cross-reactivity is low, and cefazolin can be an appropriate choice for treating group B streptococcus.
D) Clindamycin: Clindamycin is a lincosamide antibiotic and is often used for clients with penicillin allergies. It is effective against group B streptococcus and does not belong to the penicillin or cephalosporin classes, making it a suitable option for this client.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The nurse should include the instruction to "verify the identity of anyone who wants to remove your baby from the room" in the teaching about security procedures. It is important for parents to be vigilant and ensure that only authorized personnel have access to their baby.
Option b is incorrect because it may not be safe for the parent to leave their baby unattended in their room while they walk in the hallway.
Option c is incorrect because newborns typically have two identification bands, one on their arm and one on their leg.
Option d is incorrect because parents should not leave the unit with their baby without proper authorization and discharge procedures.
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