A nurse in an acute mental health facility observes a client having a panic atack. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
Discuss the client's feelings prior to the panic atack.
Encourage the use of positive self-talk strategies
Instruct the client to use abdominal breathing
Administer an anti-anxiety medication
The Correct Answer is C
c. Instruct the client to use abdominal breathing.
When a client is experiencing a panic atack, the nurse's first priority is to help the client manage their symptoms and provide immediate relief. Instructing the client to use abdominal breathing is the most appropriate initial intervention.
Explanation for the other options:
a. Discuss the client's feelings prior to the panic atack. While discussing the client's feelings can be beneficial in addressing the underlying causes of anxiety, it may not be the most effective immediate intervention during a panic atack. The client's focus during a panic atack is typically on managing the physical symptoms and regaining control.
b. Encourage the use of positive self-talk strategies. Positive self-talk can be helpful in managing anxiety in general, but during a panic atack, the individual may have difficulty engaging in positive self-talk due to the intensity of symptoms. Addressing the immediate physical symptoms is a priority before exploring coping strategies.
d. Administer an anti-anxiety medication. Medication administration may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the first-line intervention for managing a panic atack. Non-pharmacological interventions, such as breathing techniques, should be implemented first. If the panic atack persists or worsens despite these interventions, medication may be considered.
In summary, during a panic atack, the immediate focus should be on helping the client manage their symptoms. Instructing the client to use abdominal breathing can help promote relaxation and reduce the intensity of the panic atack.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
b. A decreased level of consciousness and vomiting
Explanation:
When receiving report on four clients, the nurse should first collect data about the client who has a decreased level of consciousness and vomiting. This combination of symptoms suggests a potentially serious condition that requires immediate atention and assessment. It could indicate a neurological or gastrointestinal issue, and further evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate interventions.
Explanation for the other options:
a. Cellulitis accompanied by a low-grade fever:
While cellulitis and a low-grade fever require atention, they are not as immediately critical as a decreased level of consciousness and vomiting. The nurse should prioritize assessing the client with altered consciousness and vomiting due to the potential for more urgent interventions.
c. A pain rating of 7 on a scale from 0 to 10 after receiving analgesia 30 min ago:
Although the client's pain rating of 7 indicates ongoing pain, it is not as immediately critical as a decreased level of consciousness and vomiting. The nurse should first address the client with altered consciousness to determine the cause and provide appropriate interventions before assessing and managing pain in other clients.
d. Type 2 diabetes mellitus and a blood glucose level of 160 mg/dL:
While elevated blood glucose levels in a client with type 2 diabetes require atention and management, they are not as immediately critical as a decreased level of consciousness and vomiting. The nurse should first assess the client with altered consciousness to identify the cause and provide prompt interventions.
In summary, when receiving report on four clients, the nurse should first collect data about the client who has a decreased level of consciousness and vomiting. These symptoms indicate a potentially serious condition requiring immediate assessment and intervention.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
c. Instruct the client to stand up slowly.
Explanation:
The correct answer is c. Instruct the client to stand up slowly.
Prazosin is an alpha-1 adrenergic blocker used to treat hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. One of the common side effects of prazosin is orthostatic hypotension, which can cause a drop in blood pressure when changing positions from lying or sitting to standing.
In this scenario, the client's blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, which indicates hypotension. To prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure and related symptoms such as dizziness or fainting, the nurse should instruct the client to stand up slowly. This allows the body time to adjust to the change in position and minimizes the risk of orthostatic hypotension.
Option a, administering a reversal agent, is not necessary in this situation. Reversal agents are used to counteract the effects of specific medications when there is a need to rapidly reverse their actions. There is no indication in the scenario that the client requires a reversal agent.
Option b, initiating cardiac monitoring, is not warranted based solely on a blood pressure reading of 100/60 mm Hg. Cardiac monitoring is typically indicated when there are specific cardiac concerns or symptoms, which are not mentioned in the scenario.
Option d, informing the client to report urinary retention, is a potential side effect of prazosin but is not the most appropriate action to take in this situation. The client's blood pressure is the immediate concern, and addressing orthostatic hypotension by instructing the client to stand up slowly is the appropriate action.
By instructing the client to stand up slowly, the nurse promotes safety and minimizes the risk of orthostatic hypotension, allowing the client to adjust to the change in position and reduce the likelihood of experiencing symptoms related to low blood pressure.
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