A nurse in an acute mental health facility observes a client having a panic atack. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
Discuss the client's feelings prior to the panic atack.
Encourage the use of positive self-talk strategies
Instruct the client to use abdominal breathing
Administer an anti-anxiety medication
The Correct Answer is C
c. Instruct the client to use abdominal breathing.
When a client is experiencing a panic atack, the nurse's first priority is to help the client manage their symptoms and provide immediate relief. Instructing the client to use abdominal breathing is the most appropriate initial intervention.
Explanation for the other options:
a. Discuss the client's feelings prior to the panic atack. While discussing the client's feelings can be beneficial in addressing the underlying causes of anxiety, it may not be the most effective immediate intervention during a panic atack. The client's focus during a panic atack is typically on managing the physical symptoms and regaining control.
b. Encourage the use of positive self-talk strategies. Positive self-talk can be helpful in managing anxiety in general, but during a panic atack, the individual may have difficulty engaging in positive self-talk due to the intensity of symptoms. Addressing the immediate physical symptoms is a priority before exploring coping strategies.
d. Administer an anti-anxiety medication. Medication administration may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the first-line intervention for managing a panic atack. Non-pharmacological interventions, such as breathing techniques, should be implemented first. If the panic atack persists or worsens despite these interventions, medication may be considered.
In summary, during a panic atack, the immediate focus should be on helping the client manage their symptoms. Instructing the client to use abdominal breathing can help promote relaxation and reduce the intensity of the panic atack.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The nurse should include increased cardiac output as an expected effect of digoxin when reinforcing teaching with the client. Digoxin is a positive inotropic medication that strengthens the force of contraction of the heart, resulting in increased cardiac output.
Option a, increased heart rate, is not an expected effect of digoxin. Digoxin may actually decrease heart rate by exerting a negative chronotropic effect.
Option c, decreased urinary output, is not an expected effect of digoxin. In fact, digoxin does not directly affect urinary output.
Option d, decreased potassium level, is not an expected effect of digoxin. However, digoxin can increase the risk of hypokalemia, so it is important to monitor the client's potassium levels while on the medication.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The first action the nurse should take is to reevaluate the client's response to the medication in 30 min. Hydromorphone has an onset of action of 15 to 30 minutes when taken orally ¹. Therefore, it may take some time for the medication to reach its full effect.
Option a is incorrect because it may not be necessary to contact the provider for more pain medication until after reevaluating the client's response to the medication.
Option b is incorrect because teaching relaxation techniques may not provide immediate relief for acute pain.
Option c is incorrect because documenting the client's reaction to the administration of medication should be done after reevaluating their response to the medication.
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