A mental health nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for clonazepam. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse plan to monitor?
Manifestations of seizure activity.
Decreased urine output.
Inability to recall events.
Increase in white blood cell count.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Manifestations of seizure activity are not a common adverse effect of clonazepam. In fact, clonazepam is often used to treat seizures. It is a benzodiazepine that works by decreasing abnormal electrical activity in the brain.
While it is possible for clonazepam to worsen seizures in some individuals, this is not a typical response. Therefore, it is not the most important adverse effect for the nurse to monitor.
Choice B rationale:
Decreased urine output is not a known adverse effect of clonazepam.
Some medications can affect kidney function and urine output, but clonazepam is not one of them. Therefore, it is not necessary for the nurse to monitor urine output in a client taking clonazepam. Choice C rationale:
Inability to recall events, also known as amnesia, is a common adverse effect of clonazepam.
Clonazepam can impair short-term memory, making it difficult for people to remember things that happened recently.
This can be a significant problem for clients who need to be able to recall important information, such as instructions from their healthcare providers.
Therefore, it is important for the nurse to monitor clients taking clonazepam for signs of amnesia.
Choice D rationale:
An increase in white blood cell count is not a known adverse effect of clonazepam. In fact, clonazepam can sometimes cause a decrease in white blood cell count.
However, this is a rare side effect and is not typically something that the nurse would need to monitor.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","E","G"]
Explanation
The correct answer/s is Choice/s A, E, and G.
Choice A rationale: Administering 0.9% sodium chloride IV is a common practice in emergency departments to ensure the patient is well-hydrated. This is particularly important for patients experiencing acute mania, as they may have neglected their physical health, including hydration, during their manic episode.
Choice B rationale: Flumazenil is an antagonist for benzodiazepines and is typically used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. It is not typically used in the treatment of bipolar disorder or acute mania.
Choice C rationale: Preparing the client for intubation is usually reserved for situations where the patient is unable to maintain their own airway or adequate ventilation. This is not typically necessary in cases of acute mania unless there are other complicating factors.
Choice D rationale: Beginning chest compressions is a response to cardiac arrest. There is no indication in the that the patient is experiencing cardiac arrest, so this would not be a typical anticipation for a patient experiencing acute mania.
Choice E rationale: Administering IV naloxone is done in cases of suspected opioid overdose. While it’s not directly related to treating acute mania, it’s possible that the patient could have comorbid substance use issues, given the high rate of comorbidity between bipolar disorder and substance use disorders.
Choice F rationale: Administering activated charcoal is done in cases of certain types of poisoning or drug overdose. It is not typically used in the treatment of bipolar disorder or acute mania.
Choice G rationale: Preparing the client for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) could be an appropriate anticipation for a patient experiencing acute mania. ECT is considered a highly effective treatment for severe mania, particularly when other treatments have failed or when rapid stabilization is required.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Suppression involves the conscious, intentional effort to push unwanted thoughts, feelings, or memories out of awareness. It is not evident in the client's statement, as they are not actively trying to forget or avoid their alcohol use. Instead, they are attempting to justify it.
Choice B Rationale:
Rationalization is the defense mechanism most clearly demonstrated in the client's statement. It involves creating false but seemingly logical reasons to justify unacceptable behavior or feelings. The client is attributing their alcohol use to external factors (their boss and job requirements) rather than taking responsibility for their own choices and actions. This allows them to avoid confronting the reality of their addiction and the need for change.
Key characteristics of rationalization that align with the client's statement:
Externalizing blame: The client places responsibility for their drinking on their boss and job, rather than acknowledging their own agency.
Minimizing the problem: The client suggests that their drinking was merely a necessary part of their job, downplaying the extent of their alcohol use and its negative consequences.
Avoiding negative emotions: By shifting blame, the client protects themselves from feelings of guilt, shame, and responsibility associated with their addiction.
Choice C Rationale:
Reaction formation involves behaving in a way that is opposite to one's true feelings or impulses. This is not evident in the client's statement, as they are not expressing overly negative or critical attitudes towards alcohol. Instead, they are attempting to justify their use of it.
Choice D Rationale:
Compensation involves overemphasizing a desirable trait or behavior to make up for a perceived weakness or deficiency. This is not evident in the client's statement, as they are not highlighting any positive qualities or accomplishments to offset their alcohol use.
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