A mental health nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for clonazepam. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse plan to monitor?
Manifestations of seizure activity.
Decreased urine output.
Inability to recall events.
Increase in white blood cell count.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Manifestations of seizure activity are not a common adverse effect of clonazepam. In fact, clonazepam is often used to treat seizures. It is a benzodiazepine that works by decreasing abnormal electrical activity in the brain.
While it is possible for clonazepam to worsen seizures in some individuals, this is not a typical response. Therefore, it is not the most important adverse effect for the nurse to monitor.
Choice B rationale:
Decreased urine output is not a known adverse effect of clonazepam.
Some medications can affect kidney function and urine output, but clonazepam is not one of them. Therefore, it is not necessary for the nurse to monitor urine output in a client taking clonazepam. Choice C rationale:
Inability to recall events, also known as amnesia, is a common adverse effect of clonazepam.
Clonazepam can impair short-term memory, making it difficult for people to remember things that happened recently.
This can be a significant problem for clients who need to be able to recall important information, such as instructions from their healthcare providers.
Therefore, it is important for the nurse to monitor clients taking clonazepam for signs of amnesia.
Choice D rationale:
An increase in white blood cell count is not a known adverse effect of clonazepam. In fact, clonazepam can sometimes cause a decrease in white blood cell count.
However, this is a rare side effect and is not typically something that the nurse would need to monitor.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: The client’s magnesium level is 1.7 mg/dL, which is below the normal range of 1.8 to 2.4 mg/dL. Hypomagnesemia can cause neuromuscular irritability, muscle weakness, tremors, and even seizures or cardiac arrhythmias in severe cases.
It’s often associated with other electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia and hypocalcemia.
In the context of anorexia nervosa, this could be due to inadequate dietary intake, malabsorption, or excessive losses from the gastrointestinal tract.
Choice B rationale: The client’s chloride level is 98 mmol/L, which falls within the normal range of 96 to 106 mmol/L. Chloride is an important electrolyte that helps maintain acid-base balance, fluid balance, and is a component of gastric juice as hydrochloric acid.
There’s no immediate concern regarding the client’s chloride level.
Choice C rationale: The client’s phosphate level is 2.5 mg/dL, which is below the normal range of 2.8 to 4.5 mg/dL. Hypophosphatemia can lead to muscle weakness, bone pain, mental changes, and potentially life-threatening complications such as respiratory failure and heart failure.
In the context of anorexia nervosa, hypophosphatemia is a common complication during refeeding due to shifts in electrolytes.
Choice D rationale: The client’s potassium level is 3.5 mmol/L, which is at the lower end of the normal range of 3.5 to
5.0 mmol/L. Hypokalemia can cause muscle weakness, cramps, arrhythmias, and in severe cases, it can be life- threatening.
In the context of anorexia nervosa, this could be due to inadequate dietary intake, excessive losses due to vomiting or laxative abuse, or shifts in electrolytes during refeeding.
In conclusion, the nurse should follow up on the client’s magnesium, phosphate, and potassium levels due to their potential implications on the client’s health, especially considering the client’s current health status and the process of refeeding.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Instructing the client on relaxation techniques for use when anxiety level increases is a beneficial intervention for a client with OCD. However, it is not the first action the nurse should take. The nurse needs to understand the client’s condition, including the triggers for their ritualistic behaviors, before they can effectively guide the client in managing their anxiety.
Choice B rationale: Discussing many alternative coping strategies with the client is an important part of OCD management. However, this should come after understanding the client’s condition and the triggers for their ritualistic behaviors. Without this understanding, the coping strategies suggested may not be effective or relevant.
Choice C rationale: Identifying precipitating factors for ritualistic behaviors is the first action the nurse should take. Understanding what triggers the client’s OCD behaviors is crucial in developing an effective care plan. This understanding allows the nurse to work with the client to develop strategies to manage their triggers and reduce the frequency and intensity of their OCD behaviors.
Choice D rationale: Providing a highly structured activity schedule for the client can be helpful in managing OCD. However, this should not be the first action. The nurse needs to first understand the client’s condition, including the triggers for their ritualistic behaviors. This understanding will allow the nurse to develop a schedule that takes into account the client’s triggers and incorporates effective coping strategies.
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