A male client who is admitted with bipolar disorder, and manic psychosis, is placed in seclusion after unsuccessful attempts to de-escalate him during a sudden mood swing from laughter to jumping and screaming threats while waving a plastic dinner knife.
The client is given haloperidol.
5 mg intramuscularly STAT prior to seclusion.
Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement immediately after seclusion?
Release the client as soon as composure is regained.
Observe for extrapyramidal symptoms, such as dystonia.
Secure the room with padded walls and minimal furnishings.
Provide one-on-one observation at all times.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice B rationale:
Observing for extrapyramidal symptoms, such as dystonia, is the most important intervention immediately after seclusion because haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication known to have the potential to cause extrapyramidal side effects. Identifying and managing these side effects promptly is crucial to ensure the client's safety.
Choice A rationale:
Releasing the client as soon as composure is regained may not be safe if the client is still at risk of harming themselves or others. Monitoring for the resolution of symptoms and stabilization is important before releasing the client.
Choice C rationale:
Securing the room with padded walls and minimal furnishings is not the immediate priority. While seclusion rooms should be safe and comfortable, observing for potential side effects takes precedence.
Choice D rationale:
Providing one-on-one observation at all times is a resource-intensive intervention and may not be necessary for all clients. Observing for extrapyramidal symptoms is more targeted and appropriate in this scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole has a synergistic effect, which means that the two drugs work together to inhibit bacterial growth more effectively than either drug alone. This combination is commonly used to treat urinary tract infections (UTIs) caused by susceptible bacteria.
Choice B rationale:
The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole does not have an additive effect that reduces the dosage and frequency of administration of each drug. Instead, it is prescribed as a fixed combination with specific dosages of each drug.
Choice C rationale:
The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole does not have an antagonistic effect that prevents the development of resistance to either drug. In fact, the combination is chosen because it covers a broader spectrum of bacteria and reduces the likelihood of resistance development.
Choice D rationale:
The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole does not have a selective effect that targets only the bacteria causing the UTI and spares the normal flora. It affects a wide range of bacteria, including both pathogenic and normal flora.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C). This order is questionable because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can potentially increase blood pressure, which could be harmful to a patient with hypertension. Furthermore, NSAIDs can mask the symptoms of infection, which could delay the diagnosis and treatment of serious infections.
Choice B rationale:
Enalapril 10 mg every morning. This order is questionable because enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension. However, ACE inhibitors can cause a dry cough, which could exacerbate the patient’s existing cough due to pneumonia. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can potentially cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), so it’s important to monitor the patient’s electrolyte levels.
Choice C rationale:
Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula. This order is questionable because a high flow rate of oxygen can potentially cause oxygen toxicity or hyperoxia, which can lead to cellular damage. The typical flow rate for a nasal cannula is between 1-6 L/min. A flow rate of 10 L/min may be too high for this patient, especially without a specified target SpO2 range.
Choice D rationale:
Continuous pulse oximetry. This order is appropriate because it allows for continuous monitoring of the patient’s oxygen saturation levels, which is crucial in a patient with pneumonia and shortness of breath.
Choice E rationale:
Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin. This order is appropriate because these tests can help monitor the patient’s overall health status and response to treatment.
Choice F rationale:
Admit to the medical floor. This order is appropriate because the patient requires hospitalization for treatment and monitoring due to his pneumonia.
Choice G rationale:
Vital signs every 4 hours. This order is appropriate because it allows for regular monitoring of the patient’s vital signs, which can help detect any changes in his condition.
Choice H rationale:
Chest x-ray now. This order is appropriate because a chest x-ray can help confirm the diagnosis of pneumonia and assess its severity.
Choice I rationale:
Sputum culture and sensitivity. This order is appropriate because it can help identify the specific organism causing the pneumonia and determine its antibiotic sensitivity, which can guide antibiotic therapy.
Choice J rationale:
Levofloxacin 500 mg intravenously every 24 hours. This order is appropriate because levofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic commonly used to treat pneumonia.
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