A client with pneumonia receiving antibiotic therapy reports white, cheesy patches in the mouth. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Allow the client to verbalize feelings about having the white patches.

Explain the patches will go away on their own in about 2 weeks.

Instruct to rinse the mouth with diluted hydrogen peroxide and water daily.

Notify the health care provider to obtain an antifungal medication.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   While it's important for clients to express their feelings and concerns, this intervention does not directly address the issue of the white patches or the potential infection. It may provide emotional support, but it does not contribute to resolving the clinical problem.
B.   While some mild cases may resolve on their own, oral thrush often requires antifungal treatment, especially in immunocompromised patients or those on prolonged antibiotic therapy. Telling the patient that it will go away without treatment could lead to worsening symptoms and complications.
C.   While oral hygiene is important, rinsing with diluted hydrogen peroxide is not the standard treatment for oral thrush. This method could cause irritation and may not effectively eliminate the fungal infection. Other rinses (like saline) might be more appropriate for general oral care but would not address the underlying candidiasis.
D.   White, cheesy patches in the mouth suggest oral thrush, which is commonly treated with antifungal medications (such as fluconazole or nystatin).

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Edema (swelling due to fluid accumulation) is not a primary manifestation of scabies. While secondary infections can lead to localized swelling, edema is not characteristic of scabies itself.
B. Maceration refers to the softening and breaking down of skin resulting from prolonged exposure to moisture. While it can occur if the skin is scratched and becomes wet, it is not a primary clinical manifestation of scabies.
C. Redness (erythema) can occur due to scratching and irritation, but it is not the defining feature of scabies. While some redness may be present, it is not the primary symptom that indicates scabies infestation.
D. The primary clinical manifestation of scabies is intense pruritus (itching), which is often worse at night. The itching is a result of an allergic reaction to the mites and their waste products, leading to discomfort and a strong urge to scratch.

A. 88-year-old person with only Type 2 diabetes. B. 72-year-old person with Type 2 diabetes & COPD. C. 33-year old person with Type 1 diabetes. D. 56-year old person with only Type 2 diabetes.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Older adults, particularly those with Type 2 diabetes, are at increased risk for HHS due to factors such as decreased renal function, polypharmacy, and potential for dehydration. This patient's age and diabetes type make them susceptible, but we need to compare them with other options.
B. COPD can lead to respiratory problems that may further complicate diabetes management. Additionally, older adults with chronic diseases often experience increased stress on their bodies, which can exacerbate hyperglycemia. The combination of age, diabetes, and a chronic respiratory condition increases the risk.
C. While individuals with Type 1 diabetes can experience HHS, it is less common compared to those with Type 2 diabetes. This is primarily because people with Type 1 diabetes are more prone to ketoacidosis rather than HHS, especially if they are managing their insulin properly. Therefore, this individual is at a lower risk for HHS.
D. This patient has Type 2 diabetes but lacks the additional risk factors (like older age or chronic illness) that would significantly elevate their risk for HHS compared to the other options. While they could develop HHS, they are not at the highest risk.

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A client with pneumonia receiving antibiotic therapy reports white, cheesy patches in the mouth. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

What is the primary clinical manifestation in a child with scabies?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Which of the following clients is at greatest risk for hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS)?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

An 80-year-old client is diagnosed with pneumonia. Which of the following symptoms may appear first?

A topical corticosteroid is prescribed by the primary health care provider for a child with contact dermatitis. Which instruction should the nurse give the parent about applying the cream?

The primary care provider has ordered ibuprofen 10 mg/kg every 8 hours as needed for fever. The child weighs 20 pounds. Available is 100 mg/5 milliliters (mL). How many mLs of ibuprofen should the nurse administer? Round to the nearest tenth.

Which test results require the most immediate action by the nurse?

A male client has active tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following symptoms will be exhibited?

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