A client with Crohn's disease is admitted to the medical unit with a three-day history of abdominal cramping, nausea, and vomiting. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?

Send the client to x-ray for a flat plate of the abdomen.

Give a prescribed analgesic for temperature above 101°F (38.3°C).

Place an indwelling urinary catheter and attach to a bedside drainage unit.

Insert a nasogastric tube (NGT) and attach to low intermittent suction.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Sending the client to x-ray for a flat plate of the abdomen is important for diagnosing the underlying cause of symptoms, such as bowel obstruction or severe inflammation. However, in the immediate situation, it is essential to relieve the client's symptoms and stabilize their condition first.

Choice B reason: Giving a prescribed analgesic for temperature above 101°F (38.3°C) can help manage fever and pain. However, it is not the first priority. The client’s primary issue is abdominal cramping, nausea, and vomiting, which need to be addressed urgently to prevent further complications.

Choice C reason: Placing an indwelling urinary catheter and attaching it to a bedside drainage unit may be necessary if there are urinary retention concerns. However, this intervention does not directly address the gastrointestinal symptoms that are currently most troubling for the client.

Choice D reason: Inserting a nasogastric tube (NGT) and attaching it to low intermittent suction is the most immediate priority. This action helps to decompress the stomach, relieve nausea and vomiting, and prevent further complications such as aspiration or worsening of the obstruction. It provides immediate symptomatic relief and allows for better management of the client's condition.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Jugular vein distention is more commonly associated with right ventricular heart failure, as it indicates increased central venous pressure.

Choice B reason: Bilateral basilar crackles are a hallmark sign of left ventricular heart failure. They occur due to pulmonary congestion and enema, resulting from the left ventricle's inability to effectively pump blood out to the body, causing fluid to back up into the lungs.

Choice C reason: 3+ pitting enema in the ankles is more characteristic of right ventricular heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the peripheral tissues.

Choice D reason: Hepatomegaly with right upper quadrant (RUQ) tenderness is also more indicative of right ventricular heart failure, as it reflects congestion in the liver due to increased venous pressure.

A. A haemoglobin of 12 g/dL (7.45 mmol/L) and haematocrit of 42% (0.42 volume fraction). B. Vital signs are temperature 99.0°F (37.2°C) orally, heart rate 94 beats/minute, respirations 18 breaths/minute, blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg. C. Vomits coffee-grounds emesis. D. Reports having sharp epigastric pain.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: A haemoglobin level of 12 g/dL (7.45 mmol/L) and haematocrit of 42% (0.42 volume fraction) are slightly lower than the reference range but not critically low. This finding is important and needs to be monitored, but it does not require the most immediate intervention.

Choice B reason: The vital signs provided are within normal limits and do not indicate an urgent or life-threatening condition. These should be monitored, but they do not require immediate intervention compared to other findings.

Choice C reason: Vomiting coffee-grounds emesis is a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding, specifically indicating that blood has been in the stomach long enough to be partially digested by stomach acid, giving it a coffee-grounds appearance. This is a serious and potentially life-threatening condition requiring immediate medical intervention to stop the bleeding and prevent further complications.

Choice D reason: Sharp epigastric pain is a common symptom of peptic ulcer disease and indicates inflammation or ulceration. While it is painful and concerning, it does not require the most immediate intervention compared to active gastrointestinal bleeding.

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A client with Crohn's disease is admitted to the medical unit with a three-day history of abdominal cramping, nausea, and vomiting. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

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Correct Answer is C

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