A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving a continuous IV heparin infusion. The nurse notes that the client’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 120 seconds. Which action should the nurse take? Reference Range: aPTT [25 to 35 seconds, therapeutic range for heparin 1.5 to 2.5 times baseline, approximately 38 to 88 seconds].

Continue the heparin infusion at the current rate.

Increase the heparin infusion rate by 100 units/hour.

Stop the heparin infusion and notify the provider.

Administer protamine sulfate immediately.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Continuing heparin at aPTT 120 seconds is unsafe, as it exceeds the therapeutic range (38–88 seconds), indicating excessive anticoagulation. This risks bleeding, as heparin enhances antithrombin, inhibiting clotting factors. Stopping and notifying the provider prevents hemorrhage, making continuation dangerous for this DVT client.

Choice B reason: Increasing heparin is contraindicated with aPTT 120 seconds, far above therapeutic (38–88 seconds). Excessive anticoagulation from heparin’s antithrombin activation heightens bleeding risk. Stopping the infusion and notifying the provider corrects over-anticoagulation, preventing complications like hematoma, making an increase harmful and inappropriate.

Choice C reason: Stopping heparin and notifying the provider is critical at aPTT 120 seconds, indicating over-anticoagulation. Heparin’s inhibition of clotting factors increases bleeding risk in DVT treatment. Halting infusion prevents hemorrhage, and provider notification ensures dose adjustment or reversal, addressing the pathophysiological risk effectively and promptly.

Choice D reason: Administering protamine sulfate reverses heparin but requires provider order, as aPTT 120 seconds indicates high bleeding risk. Stopping infusion first prevents further anticoagulation, and notifying the provider ensures guided reversal, avoiding premature protamine use, which risks anaphylaxis or thrombosis, making this less immediate.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Denying muscle spasms is normal and not a complication. Muscle twitching indicates hypocalcemia, a thyroidectomy risk due to parathyroid damage. Absence of spasms is reassuring, per postoperative complication monitoring and endocrine surgical care standards in nursing.

Choice B reason: Back and joint pain are nonspecific and not typical thyroidectomy complications. Muscle twitching suggests hypocalcemia, a critical issue post-thyroidectomy. Pain requires assessment but is less urgent, per postoperative monitoring and complication management protocols in surgical nursing.

Choice C reason: Muscle twitching in hands and feet indicates hypocalcemia, a serious complication from parathyroid gland damage during thyroidectomy. This requires immediate calcium replacement to prevent tetany, per postoperative complication monitoring and endocrine surgical care protocols in nursing practice.

Choice D reason: Diaphoresis without headache is nonspecific and not a primary thyroidectomy complication. Muscle twitching signals hypocalcemia, needing urgent intervention. Diaphoresis requires monitoring but is less critical, per postoperative assessment and complication management standards in surgical nursing.

A. Immediately take 2 more readings on the same arm. B. Assign the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to recheck the BP in an hour. C. Retake the client’s blood pressure in the opposite arm. D. Ask another nurse to assist in assessing for an apical-radial pulse deficit. E. Determine the client’s activity and feelings prior to the BP measurement.

Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: Taking two more readings confirms elevated BP, as a single reading may reflect technique errors or transient factors like pain, which increase sympathetic activity and vasoconstriction. Multiple readings ensure accuracy, critical for diagnosing hypertension and guiding intervention to prevent cardiovascular complications like stroke.

Choice B reason: Assigning a UAP to recheck BP in an hour delays assessment of potentially dangerous hypertension, which risks acute complications like myocardial ischemia. Immediate confirmation is needed, as elevated BP from norepinephrine release increases vascular resistance, making delayed rechecking inappropriate for urgent evaluation.

Choice C reason: Retaking BP in the opposite arm verifies accuracy, as differences may indicate arterial occlusion. Elevated BP increases catecholamine-driven vascular resistance. Measuring both arms rules out localized issues, ensuring reliable data to guide management of hypertension, critical to prevent end-organ damage like renal failure.

Choice D reason: Assessing apical-radial pulse deficit is relevant for atrial fibrillation, not directly for elevated BP. Hypertension results from increased vascular resistance, not pulse discrepancies. Confirming BP and assessing context are more immediate to determine urgency, making this less relevant than verifying readings or identifying triggers.

Choice E reason: Determining activity and feelings identifies transient BP elevation causes, like stress or exercise, which raise norepinephrine, increasing heart rate and vascular tone. This contextualizes the reading, differentiating situational from chronic hypertension, ensuring appropriate intervention to manage cardiovascular risk and guide further assessment.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Following a total thyroidectomy, the nurse plans to observe a client for complications. Which finding indicates that the client has developed a complication?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse measures the client’s blood pressure (BP) and notes that it is significantly higher than the previous reading. Which should the nurse do next? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]

Explanation

The nurse attaches a pulse oximeter to a client’s finger and obtains an oxygen saturation reading of 91%. Which assessment finding most likely contributes to this reading?

An older adult male client with schizophrenia is found smearing feces on the bathroom walls of the chronic mental health unit where he resides. Which action should the nurse implement?

A female client engages in repeated checks of door and window locks and behavior that prevents her from arriving on time and interfering with her ability to function effectively. Which action should the nurse take?

After administering lisinopril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, it is most important for the nurse to monitor which assessment finding?

When conducting discharge teaching for a client diagnosed with diverticulosis, which diet instruction should the nurse include?

The nurse orients a client with depression to a new room on the mental health unit. The client states, “It seems strange that I don’t have a television (TV) in my room.” Which statement is best for the nurse to provide?

During a home visit, the nurse assesses the skin of a client with eczema who reports that an exacerbation of symptoms has occurred during the last week. Which information is most useful in determining the possible cause of the symptoms?