A client with a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is scheduled to receive plasmapheresis treatments. A nurse explains to the client's spouse that the purpose of plasmapheresis is to:

infuse lipoproteins to restore the myelin sheath.

remove excess fluid from the blood stream.

restore protein levels in the blood.

remove circulating antibodies from the blood stream.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A) Infuse lipoproteins to restore the myelin sheath:
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is an autoimmune disease where the immune system attacks the myelin sheath around nerve fibers. Plasmapheresis does not work by infusing lipoproteins to restore the myelin sheath. The treatment's primary goal is to remove harmful substances from the blood that may be contributing to the autoimmune attack, particularly antibodies that target the nervous system, not by restoring the myelin itself.

B) Remove excess fluid from the bloodstream:
Plasmapheresis is a process used to remove certain substances from the plasma, including antibodies and immune complexes that might be exacerbating an autoimmune condition like MS. If the goal were to remove excess fluid, the treatment would be more akin to dialysis or a fluid management procedure, but this is not the case with plasmapheresis.

C) Restore protein levels in the blood:
While plasmapheresis can sometimes lead to a temporary decrease in protein levels due to the removal of plasma, this is not its primary purpose. The primary goal of plasmapheresis in the context of multiple sclerosis is to remove circulating antibodies and other immune-related substances.

D) Remove circulating antibodies from the bloodstream:
Plasmapheresis works by removing circulating antibodies from the bloodstream. In multiple sclerosis, the immune system mistakenly targets the myelin sheath, and plasmapheresis helps to remove the antibodies responsible for this autoimmune response. This can provide temporary relief of symptoms during acute flare-ups of MS by reducing the immune system's attack on the nervous system.

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Correct Answer is ["A"]

Explanation

A) Hydration with IV fluids:
IV hydration may be ordered to improve kidney function and help facilitate the excretion of excess digoxin from the body. Digoxin toxicity is often related to impaired renal clearance, so improving hydration can promote renal perfusion and enhance the elimination of the drug. This is a common supportive measure to help in managing digoxin toxicity.

B) Nothing as the digoxin level is within normal ranges:
This is incorrect because the patient's digoxin level is 4 ng/ml, which is significantly above the normal therapeutic range of 0.8–2.0 ng/ml. A level of 4 ng/ml is toxic, and immediate action is required. Symptoms like severe bradycardia, nausea, and vomiting are indicative of digoxin toxicity, and they necessitate prompt intervention.

C) Hold the Digoxin:
In the case of digoxin toxicity, it is crucial to hold the digoxin. Digoxin should be discontinued immediately if toxicity is suspected, as continuing the medication could worsen symptoms like bradycardia and increase the risk of potentially life-threatening arrhythmias. This step is essential to prevent further complications.

D) Digibind:
Digibind (Digoxin immune fab) is a digoxin-specific antibody used in cases of severe digoxin toxicity or overdose. It binds to the digoxin molecules and helps to neutralize its effects. Given the elevated level of digoxin (4 ng/ml) and the presence of symptoms like severe bradycardia, nausea, and vomiting, Digibind is likely to be ordered to reverse the effects of the toxicity.

E) Narcan:
Narcan (naloxone) is used to reverse opioid overdoses, not digoxin toxicity. There is no indication for the use of Narcan in this scenario, as digoxin toxicity does not involve opioid overdose. This intervention would be inappropriate and irrelevant to the management of digoxin toxicity.

A. The time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization (diastole) B. Time taken for impulse to spread to the point immediately preceding ventricular contraction C. Time taken for depolarization (contraction) of both ventricles (systole) D. Passage of electrical impulse through the atrium causing atrial depolarization

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) The time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization (diastole):
This refers to the period between ventricular depolarization and repolarization, which is associated with the QT interval on the EKG, not the P wave. The P wave specifically relates to atrial depolarization, not the ventricular activity. Diastole refers to the relaxation phase of the heart cycle, and it’s not directly linked to the P wave, which represents atrial contraction.

B) Time taken for impulse to spread to the point immediately preceding ventricular contraction:

The P wave represents the depolarization (or contraction) of the atria, not the time taken for the impulse to spread to the ventricles. The time taken for the impulse to spread through the atria, across the AV node, and down to the ventricles is better represented by the PR interval, not the P wave itself.

C) Time taken for depolarization (contraction) of both ventricles (systole):
This describes the QRS complex, which represents the depolarization (contraction) of the ventricles during systole, not the P wave. The QRS complex shows the electrical activity of the ventricles as they contract, while the P wave relates to atrial depolarization, which occurs before ventricular contraction.

D) Passage of electrical impulse through the atrium causing atrial depolarization:
The P wave represents the passage of the electrical impulse through the atria, leading to atrial depolarization. Depolarization of the atria results in the contraction of the atria, pushing blood into the ventricles. The P wave is the first part of the cardiac cycle on the EKG and reflects the electrical activity that causes atrial contraction.

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A client with a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is scheduled to receive plasmapheresis treatments. A nurse explains to the client's spouse that the purpose of plasmapheresis is to:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient taking Digoxin is experiencing severe bradycardia, nausea and vomiting. A lab draw shows that their Digoxin level is 4 ng/mi (0.8-2.0 ng/ml). What management does the nurse anticipate the physician to order? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["A"]

Explanation

The patient asks the nurse what the P Wave indicates on an EKG strip. The nurse informs the patient that the P Wave represents:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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