A client in the emergency room begins to experience an acute asthma attack. The nurse expects that which medication will be used as initial treatment?
A corticosteroid such as fluticasone
A long-acting beta 2 agonist such as salmeterol
A short-acting, beta 2 agonist such as albuterol
Methylxanthines such Theophylline
The Correct Answer is C
A) A corticosteroid such as fluticasone:
While corticosteroids, such as fluticasone, are effective for managing chronic asthma and preventing inflammation over time, they are not the first-line treatment during an acute asthma attack. Corticosteroids are typically used for long-term control and maintenance therapy, not for rapid relief of symptoms in an acute exacerbation. Immediate relief is needed in acute situations, which corticosteroids alone do not provide.
B) A long-acting beta 2 agonist such as salmeterol:
Long-acting beta-2 agonists (LABAs), such as salmeterol, are used for maintenance therapy to prevent asthma attacks and should not be used for the immediate treatment of an acute asthma exacerbation. They take longer to start working, and their role is to provide prolonged bronchodilation over time, not to relieve sudden bronchoconstriction.
C) A short-acting beta 2 agonist such as albuterol:
During an acute asthma attack, the immediate goal is to relieve bronchoconstriction and improve airflow. Short-acting beta-2 agonists like albuterol are the first-line treatment because they quickly relax the smooth muscles of the airways, leading to bronchodilation. Albuterol works within minutes, providing rapid relief from the symptoms of wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness.
D) Methylxanthines such as Theophylline:
Methylxanthines (e.g., theophylline) were once used for asthma management but are no longer considered the first-line treatment for acute exacerbations due to their narrow therapeutic range and the potential for toxicity. While theophylline can provide bronchodilation, its onset of action is slower than that of beta-agonists like albuterol, and it is generally reserved for more chronic management of asthma or severe cases where other medications are not effective.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Go to the emergency department:
An immediate trip to the emergency department is generally not required for a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) of 82%. The PEFR of 82% indicates that the client’s airflow is reduced, but it is not necessarily an emergency. PEFR readings are typically classified into zones: green (80-100% of personal best), yellow (50-79% of personal best), and red (below 50% of personal best). A reading of 82% is in the yellow zone, which suggests that the client is experiencing some degree of airway obstruction or worsening asthma symptoms
B) Continue to use salmeterol and fluticasone as prescribed:
While salmeterol (a long-acting beta agonist) and fluticasone (a corticosteroid) are important for long-term asthma control, continuing their use without additional intervention is not the most appropriate action when the PEFR is 82%. A PEFR of 82% indicates that the client’s asthma is not well controlled at the moment, and the nurse should recommend additional short-acting relief to help open the airways (e.g., a rescue inhaler like albuterol.
C) Administer an additional rescue dose of Albuterol:
The correct immediate action is to administer a rescue dose of albuterol. Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist that helps open the airways quickly during an asthma exacerbation. A PEFR of 82% falls in the yellow zone, suggesting some obstruction but not an emergency situation. In this case, administering an additional rescue dose of albuterol can help improve airflow and bring the PEFR closer to normal.
D) Call the physician:
While it may be necessary to call the physician if the client’s asthma symptoms do not improve after using a rescue inhaler or if there is a significant decline in symptoms, the first immediate action should be to use a rescue medication like albuterol. Calling the physician may be appropriate after assessing the response to the rescue medication, but it is not the first step in managing a PEFR of 82%.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]
Explanation
A) Associated with recent vaccination:
Vaccinations, particularly those for influenza and other viral infections, have been linked to an increased risk of GBS in some cases. This association is believed to be due to an immune response that may trigger the autoimmune attack on the peripheral nervous system, leading to GBS.
B) Associated with tobacco use:
While smoking has been associated with various health conditions, including respiratory and cardiovascular diseases, there is no established direct link between tobacco use and the development of GBS. The pathophysiology of GBS is more strongly related to infections and certain immune responses rather than lifestyle factors like smoking.
C) Recent surgical experience:
It is believed that the stress from surgery, particularly in the presence of an infection or immune response, may trigger the development of GBS. Infections, especially bacterial infections like those caused by Campylobacter jejuni, which is a common antecedent of GBS, can sometimes occur after surgery.
D) Presence of a thymus gland:
The thymus is involved in the immune system, particularly in the development of T-cells, but there is no direct correlation between the thymus gland and the onset of GBS. GBS is more closely related to infections (viral or bacterial), recent vaccinations, or surgery rather than anatomical features like the thymus.
E) Associated with exposure to a recent viral infection:
Viral infections such as Zika virus, Epstein-Barr virus, cytomegalovirus (CMV), influenza, and others can trigger an autoimmune response that leads to the development of GBS. Infections are the most common precipitating factor for GBS, and the immune system’s response to the viral infection may cause the body to mistakenly attack its own peripheral nerves, leading to the symptoms of GBS.
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