A client who is primiparous at 40 weeks of gestation calls the labor and delivery unit to ask about coming in to be evaluated for labor. The client reports having contractions every 6 to 8 min, which feels slightly painful. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask the client next?
"Have you had any health concerns during your pregnancy?"
Do have a support person present?"
Have you noticed any fluid leaking from your vagina?"
When was your last prenatal visit?
The Correct Answer is C
A) "Have you had any health concerns during your pregnancy?"
While it's important to assess the client's overall health and pregnancy history, this question doesn't directly address the current concern of possible labor and does not immediately help assess the client's status for labor evaluation. The focus should be on signs of labor or complications at this point.
B) "Do you have a support person present?"
Although this is a helpful question to ask in preparation for labor, it doesn't provide the necessary information needed to assess whether the client is in labor. The priority at this stage is determining if the client is in labor or experiencing any complications, such as rupture of membranes.
C) "Have you noticed any fluid leaking from your vagina?"
This is the most important question to ask next. If the client has ruptured membranes (i.e., water breaking), it is important to assess the timing and nature of the fluid leakage, as it would indicate the need for immediate evaluation at the hospital. Rupture of membranes requires monitoring for infection and should prompt the client to come in for assessment regardless of the frequency or intensity of contractions.
D) "When was your last prenatal visit?"
While it is helpful to know when the client had their last prenatal visit, this question does not directly address the issue of possible labor. The priority is to determine if the client is in labor, whether their membranes have ruptured, or if there are any other complications such as bleeding or abnormal fetal movement. The question about fluid leakage is more immediate and relevant to their current condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","E"]
Explanation
A) Fusion of labia in female genitalia:
Fusion of the labia in a female newborn is not an expected finding. This could indicate a condition such as labial adhesion or an abnormality in the development of the genitalia. Normally, the labia in a female newborn are separated. Any signs of fusion would require further evaluation by the healthcare provider.
B) Erythema toxicum on newborn's skin:
Erythema toxicum is a common and expected finding in newborns, usually appearing within the first 2–3 days of life. It consists of small, red papules or pustules on a red base, often described as a "flea-bitten" appearance. This rash is benign and resolves on its own within a few days to weeks. It is not associated with any infection or underlying health issues.
C) Hypospadias is noted in the male newborn:
Hypospadias, a condition where the urethral opening is located on the underside of the penis rather than at the tip, is not an expected finding in all newborn males. While it occurs in a small percentage of male infants, it is a congenital anomaly that would require further assessment and possibly surgical correction. It is not considered a normal finding in a newborn.
D) Presence of syndactyly in extremities:
Syndactyly, the condition where two or more fingers or toes are fused together, is not a normal finding in newborns. While it is a congenital anomaly that can occur in some infants, it is not expected and requires further evaluation and possibly surgical intervention depending on the severity.
E) Negative Ortolani sign:
A negative Ortolani sign is an expected and normal finding in a newborn. The Ortolani maneuver is used to assess for hip dislocation, and a negative result indicates that the hip is stable and not dislocated. If the Ortolani sign were positive, it would suggest the presence of a developmental hip dysplasia, which would require further diagnostic evaluation. A negative sign is considered typical and reassuring.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Goodell’s sign:
Goodell's sign refers to the softening of the cervix that occurs early in pregnancy, typically around 4–6 weeks. It is a probable sign of pregnancy due to increased vascularity and hormonal changes. However, it does not describe the movement of the fetus or the sensation felt by the provider when pressure is applied to the cervix.
B) Lightening:
Lightening refers to the sensation of the fetus dropping or descending into the pelvic cavity, which typically happens in the later stages of pregnancy (around 36 weeks or later). It is not related to the fetal movement felt by the provider through upward pressure on the cervix, but rather to the physical repositioning of the fetus as it prepares for labor.
C) Ballottement:
Ballottement is the correct term for the movement of the fetus that can be felt by the provider when upward pressure is applied to the cervix. This technique involves a gentle tapping or pushing on the cervix, causing the fetus to rise and then "bounce" back. This is a probable sign of pregnancy, typically noticeable between 16 and 18 weeks gestation.
D) Chadwick's sign:
Chadwick’s sign refers to the bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and vulva due to increased blood flow and is often an early sign of pregnancy. It does not relate to the movement of the fetus felt by the provider, but rather to changes in the color of the genital tissues.
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