A client who is primiparous at 40 weeks of gestation calls the labor and delivery unit to ask about coming in to be evaluated for labor. The client reports having contractions every 6 to 8 min, which feels slightly painful. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask the client next?
"Have you had any health concerns during your pregnancy?"
Do have a support person present?"
Have you noticed any fluid leaking from your vagina?"
When was your last prenatal visit?
The Correct Answer is C
A) "Have you had any health concerns during your pregnancy?"
While it's important to assess the client's overall health and pregnancy history, this question doesn't directly address the current concern of possible labor and does not immediately help assess the client's status for labor evaluation. The focus should be on signs of labor or complications at this point.
B) "Do you have a support person present?"
Although this is a helpful question to ask in preparation for labor, it doesn't provide the necessary information needed to assess whether the client is in labor. The priority at this stage is determining if the client is in labor or experiencing any complications, such as rupture of membranes.
C) "Have you noticed any fluid leaking from your vagina?"
This is the most important question to ask next. If the client has ruptured membranes (i.e., water breaking), it is important to assess the timing and nature of the fluid leakage, as it would indicate the need for immediate evaluation at the hospital. Rupture of membranes requires monitoring for infection and should prompt the client to come in for assessment regardless of the frequency or intensity of contractions.
D) "When was your last prenatal visit?"
While it is helpful to know when the client had their last prenatal visit, this question does not directly address the issue of possible labor. The priority is to determine if the client is in labor, whether their membranes have ruptured, or if there are any other complications such as bleeding or abnormal fetal movement. The question about fluid leakage is more immediate and relevant to their current condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) G5 T1 P2 A1 L2:
G (Gravida): Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current pregnancy. In this case, the woman is currently pregnant and has had 4 previous pregnancies (one miscarriage at 10 weeks, one at 22 weeks, and two live births). Therefore, her Gravida (G) is 5.
T (Term births): Term births are those that occur at or after 37 weeks of gestation. The woman delivered an 18-month-old daughter who was born 2 days after her due date, which is a term birth. Thus, her Term (T) is 1.
P (Preterm births): Preterm births occur between 20 and 36 weeks of gestation. The woman had a son born at 35 weeks, which is classified as a preterm birth. Therefore, the Preterm (P) is 2.
A (Abortions or miscarriages): Abortions refer to pregnancies that ended before 20 weeks of gestation. The woman experienced two miscarriages, one at 10 weeks and one at 22 weeks. Thus, the Abortions (A) is 1.
L (Living children): Living children are those who are currently alive. The woman has a 3-year-old son and an 18-month-old daughter, so the Living (L) is 2.
Thus, the correct GTPAL classification is G5 T1 P2 A1 L2.
B) G5 T2 P2 A1 L2:
This is incorrect because the woman had only one term birth (not two). She delivered her daughter at term, but the son was preterm (born at 35 weeks). Therefore, her Term (T) should be 1, not 2.
C) G4 T1 P2 A2 L2:
This is incorrect because the woman is currently pregnant, so her Gravida (G) is 5, not 4. Additionally, the woman had 1 abortion, not 2.
D) G4 T1 P1 A2 L2:
This is also incorrect because the woman is currently pregnant, so her Gravida (G) is 5, not 4. Furthermore, the woman had 2 preterm births, not 1.
Correct Answer is ["3.6"]
Explanation
Given:
Desired dose: Ceftazidime 1 g IM every 6 hours
Available concentration: Ceftazidime 280 mg/mL
To find:
Volume to administer (in mL)
Step 1: Convert desired dose to milligrams
1 gram (g) is equal to 1000 milligrams (mg).
Multiply by 1000:
Desired dose (mg) = Desired dose (g) x 1000
Desired dose (mg) = 1 g x 1000 = 1000 mg
Step 2: Set up the proportion
We can use the following proportion to solve the problem:
(Desired dose) / (Available concentration) = Volume to administer
Step 3: Substitute the values
Plugging in the given values, we get:
(1000 mg) / (280 mg/mL) = Volume to administer
Step 4: Simplify
To simplify, we can invert the denominator and multiply:
(1000 mg) x (1 mL / 280 mg) = Volume to administer
The "mg" units cancel out, leaving us with:
(1000 x 1 mL) / 280 = Volume to administer
Step 5: Calculate
Performing the multiplication and division, we get:
1000 mL / 280 = Volume to administer
3.57 mL ≈ Volume to administer
Step 6: Round to the nearest tenth
3.6mL
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