A client who is 7 days postpartum calls the provider's office and reports pain, swelling, and redness of her left calf. Besides the client seeing the provider, which of the following interventions should the nurse suggest?
Massage the area.
Apply cold compresses
Flex the knee while resting
Elevate the leg
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Massaging the area is not recommended because the client's symptoms could indicate a possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT), and massaging could dislodge a clot and cause harm.
Choice B rationale:
Applying cold compresses is not recommended if DVT is suspected, as it could potentially worsen the condition.
Choice C rationale:
Flexing the knee while resting is not recommended if DVT is suspected, as it could potentially worsen the condition and increase the risk of a clot traveling to the lungs (pulmonary embolism).
Choice D rationale:
Elevating the leg can help reduce swelling and improve blood flow. However, the client should still see the provider for further evaluation of possible DVT.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test is typically done during the initial diagnosis of gestational diabetes, not for ongoing monitoring. Since the client is already diagnosed, this action is not necessary at this stage.
Choice B rationale:
Obtaining an HbA1C is not necessary in this situation. HbA1C provides information about average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months and is not specific to postprandial glucose levels.
Choice C rationale:
Telling the client to increase carbohydrates to 65% of daily nutritional intake would not be appropriate since the client already has elevated blood glucose levels. Reducing carbohydrate intake and focusing on a balanced diet are more appropriate for managing gestational diabetes.
Choice D rationale:
Given that the client's blood glucose levels after meals are consistently above the target range (generally <140 mg/dL for 1-hour post-meal), it indicates a need for better glycemic control, which may require insulin therapy.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: RhoGAM is not given solely based on blood loss. It is administered to prevent Rh isoimmunization, which is unrelated to the amount of blood loss.
Choice B rationale: If the client has previously given birth to an Rh-negative infant, she is already sensitized and would not require RhoGAM for this current ectopic pregnancy.
Choice C rationale: Rho(D) Immune globulin (RhoGAM) is given to Rh-negative individuals to prevent the development of Rh isoimmunization, which could occur if the client is exposed to Rh-positive blood. In the case of an ectopic pregnancy, there may be a possibility of fetal blood mixing with the mother's bloodstream, which could lead to sensitization in an Rh-negative individual.
Choice D rationale: The desire to conceive again does not dictate the need for RhoGAM. It is solely based on the client's Rh factor status and the potential for sensitization during the ectopic pregnancy.
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