A client who has coronary artery disease tells the nurse he is afraid of dying from a heart attack. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

"Perhaps you should discuss this with your physician."

"Of course, you aren't going to die, at least not in the immediate future."

"I recommend you exercise daily and avoid smoking to decrease your risk."

"Tell me more about these fears of dying from a heart attack.".

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale:

Deflecting the client's concerns to the physician dismisses the client's immediate need for emotional support and therapeutic communication.

It can hinder the development of a trusting nurse-client relationship.

The nurse is responsible for addressing the client's psychosocial needs, not solely deferring them to other healthcare professionals.

Choice B rationale:

Offering false reassurance is inappropriate and potentially harmful. It can erode trust if the client's fears are later realized.

It minimizes the client's legitimate concerns and invalidates their emotional experience.

Choice C rationale:

While lifestyle modifications are essential for managing coronary artery disease, providing unsolicited advice at this moment disregards the client's emotional distress.

It prioritizes physical health over the client's psychological well-being. It can be perceived as dismissive of the client's fears and concerns.

Choice D rationale:

Inviting the client to elaborate on their fears demonstrates active listening and encourages therapeutic communication. It validates the client's concerns and shows empathy for their emotional experience.

It provides an opportunity to assess the client's understanding of their condition and identify specific fears or misconceptions. It establishes a foundation for exploring coping mechanisms and providing appropriate support and education.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Avoids addressing the client's behavior: This response does not directly address the client's disrespectful tone of voice. It simply gives the client the schedule and expects them to comply. This could reinforce the client's belief that they can act out without consequences.

Misses an opportunity to set boundaries: Setting boundaries is essential when working with clients with BPD. This response does not establish a clear boundary regarding acceptable communication.

Does not promote therapeutic communication: This response does not encourage the client to share their feelings or explore the reasons behind their outburst. It shuts down communication rather than opening it up.

Choice B rationale:

Directly addresses the inappropriate behavior: This response assertively communicates to the client that their tone of voice is unacceptable. It sets a clear boundary regarding respectful communication.

Models appropriate communication: The nurse models respectful communication by using a calm and assertive tone of voice. This can help the client learn to communicate more effectively.

Promotes self-awareness: This response may prompt the client to reflect on their behavior and the impact it has on others. It can help them develop better self-awareness and emotional regulation skills.

Choice C rationale:

Focuses on the nurse's feelings: This response shifts the focus away from the client's behavior and onto the nurse's feelings. It can make the client feel defensive and less likely to engage in productive communication.

May escalate the situation: Asking "why" s can sometimes put clients on the defensive and lead to further conflict. It's generally more helpful to focus on the present behavior and its impact.

Choice D rationale:

Condescending and challenging: This response comes across as condescending and challenging. It's likely to make the client feel defensive and resentful.

Not therapeutic: This response does not promote a sense of trust or rapport between the nurse and the client. It's unlikely to lead to productive communication or behavior change.

Correct Answer is ["2"]

Explanation

The nurse should administer 2 tablets per dose.

Rationale:

Step 1: Determine the desired dose of diphenhydramine. The desired dose is 50 mg.

Step 2: Determine the available tablet strength. The available tablet strength is 25 mg.

Step 3: Divide the desired dose by the tablet strength to determine the number of tablets needed. 50 mg / 25 mg/tablet = 2 tablets

Therefore, the nurse should administer 2 tablets of diphenhydramine 25 mg per dose to achieve the desired dose of 50 mg.

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A client who has coronary artery disease tells the nurse he is afraid of dying from a heart attack. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is preparing to administer diphenhydramine 50 mg PO every 6 hr to a client who has acute dystonia. The available medication is diphenhydramine 25 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer per dose?

Correct Answer is ["2"]

Explanation

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